General Science Solved Past Papers Mcqs Set-2

Note: General Science Solved Past Papers MCQs Set-2 comprises 200 important Physics, Biology, Chemistry, and English MCQs. These MCQs are taken from different Past Papers and are helpful in MDCAT, ECAT, ETEA, and different Medical related posts.

Physics Mcqs

1. When a helium atom loses an electron, it becomes:

A. An alpha particle
B. A positive helium ion
C. Proton
D. A negative helium ion

 

2. Beta ray emitted by a radioactive substance is:

A. An electron which was existing outside the nucleus.
B. An electron which was existing inside the nucleus.
C. An electron emitted by the nucleus as a result of the decay of neutron inside the nucleus.
D. A pulse of electromagnetic wave.

 

3. An electric charge in uniform motion produces:

A. An electric field
B. Both magnetic and electric fields
C. A magnetic field
D. Neither magnetic nor electric fields

 

4. What is emitted by a hot metal filament in a cathode ray tube?

A. X-ray
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Photon

 

5. If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is doubled its time period is:

A. Halved.
B. Doubled
C. Unchanged
D. Increases four times

 

6. The center of Newton rings is dark due to:

A. Polarization
B. Destructive interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Reflection

 

7. Which one is the most stable element on the basis of binding energy?

A. Sn
B. Kr
C. Ba
D. Fe

 

8. Resistance in RC circuit of time constant 2 seconds is 1000 Ohms. What is the value of C in the circuit?

A. 2 μ farad
B. 200 μ farad
C. 20 μ farad
D. 2000 μ farad

 

9. Lenz’s law refers to induced ___.

A. Emf
B. Shear
C. Resistance
D. Current

 

10. In which of the following, output is similar to NAND gate if input A=0 and input B=1.
A=0 and input B=1.

A. NOR
B. XOR
C. XNOR
D. Both B and C

 

11. For atomic hydrogen spectrum, which of the following series lies in the visible region of
electromagnetic spectrum?

A. Lyman series
B. Balmer series
C. Paschen series
D. Bohr series

 

12. ___ are the particles that experience strong nuclear force.

A. Electrons
B. Neutrinos
C. Muons
D. Neutrons

 

13. The vertical velocity of a ball thrown upward __________ with time.

A. Decreases linearly
B. Doubles
C. Remains constant
D. Decreases parabolically

 

14. The force required to bend the normally straight path of a particle into a circular path is called____force.

A. Traveling
B. Centrifugal
C. Bending
D. Centripetal

 

15. A disc at rest without slipping, rolls down a hill of height (3 x 9.8) m. What is its speed in m/sec when it reaches the bottom?

A. 11.4
B. 22.8.
C. 19.6.
D. 9.8.

 

16. Tuning of the radio is the best example of electrical ____.

A. Resonance
B. Current
C. Resistance
D. None of these

 

17. A standing wave pattern is formed when the length of the string is an integral multiple of ___ wavelength.

A. Triple
B. Half
C. Full
D. Double

 

18. Which of the following lights travels the fastest in optical fibers?

A. Visible light
B. Ultra-violet
C. Invisible infra-red
D. Ordinary light

 

19. The algebraic sum of potential changes in a closed circuit is zero is Kirchhoff’s ___ rule.

A. First
B. Third
C. Second
D. None of these

 

20. In LED when an electron combines with a _____ during forwarding bias conduction, a photon of visible light is emitted.

A. High voltage
B. Hole
C. Photon
D. Positron

 

21. For photons of energy greater than 1.02 MeV the probability of pair production occurrence ____ as the energy increases.

A. Increase
B. Reduces to half
C. Completely diminishes
D. Remains unchanged

 

22. The neutron is assumed to be made of?

A. One up quark and two down quarks
B. Two up quarks and one down quark
C. Two up quarks and two down quarks
D. One up quark and one down quark

 

23. An ___ missile is called a ballistic missile.

A. Un-powered and guided
B. Powered and guided
C. Un-guided and powered
D. Un-powered and un-guided

 

24. Two cylinders of equal mass are made from the same material. The one with the larger diameter accelerates ____ the other under the action of the same torque.

A. Faster than
B. Equal to
C. Slower than
D. None of these

 

25. The Angular frequency of the simple pendulum is directly proportional to ____.

A. l
B. v l
C. 1/l
D. v1/l

 

26. Two waves of slightly different frequencies and traveling in the same direction produce?

A. Interference
B. Stationary waves
C. Polarization
D. Beats

 

27. A single-mode step-index fiber has a core of about ___ μm diameter.

A. 50 to 1000
B. 30
C. 50
D. 5

 

28. A 5 Ohm resistor is indicated by a single ___ color band around its body.

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Brown

 

29. Practically _____ current flows in a reverse-biased p-n junction.

A. No
B. Few milliamperes
C. Very large
D. Both A and C

 

30. Cesium-coated oxidized silver emits electrons for ____ light.

A. Infrared
B. Visible
C. Ultraviolet
D. Green

 

31. The cobalt is absorbed by:

A. Bones
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Thyroid gland

 

32. In a step-down transformer the output current ____.

A. Is reduced
B. Remains same
C. Is increased
D. None of these

 

33. Force in terms of base units is expressed as:

A. kg ms-2
B. kg m2s-3
C. kg m2s-2
D. None of these

 

34. 100 joules work has been done by an agency in 10 seconds. What is the power of agency?

A. 1000 watt
B. 10 watt
C. 100
D. 0.10 watt

 

35. The acceleration is proportional to the displacement and is directed towards a mean position in ____ motion.

A. Gravity
B. Uniform
C. Simple harmonic
D. Projectile

 

36. In gases, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to ____ of the density when other factors are the same.

A. Square root
B. Third power
C. Square
D. Third root

 

37. A watchmaker uses ____ to repair the watches.

A. Telescope
B. Convex lens
C. Convex mirror
D. Concave lens

 

38. A 2m long pipe is open at both ends. What is its harmonic frequency?

A. 42.5 Hz
B. 220 Hz
C. 85 Hz
D. None of these

 

39. A wire has a resistance of 100 Ohm at 0 oC and 200 Ohm at 100 oC. What is its temperature coefficient in K-1?

A. -0.01
B. 0.01
C. -1/273
D. 1/273

 

40. The net magnetic field created by the electrons within an atom is due to the field created by their ___ motion.

A. Orbital
B. Orbital & spin
C. Spin
D. Orbital x spin

 

41. At high temperatures, the proportion of ____ wavelength radiation increases.

A. AM radio
B. Shorter
C. Long radio
D. Both A and C

 

42. In photoelectric effect removal of photons is observed at ___ energies.

A. Low
B. Intermediate
C. High
D. Both A and C

 

43. Which device is the most efficient?

A. Nuclear reactor
B. Silicon solar cell
C. Storage battery
D. Dry battery cell

 

44. The units of E in E=mc2 are?

A. kg m s-2
B. kg m2 s-2
C. N m s-2
D. Both B and C

 

45. Work done on a body equals the change in its ___ energy.

A. Total
B. Kinetic
C. Potential
D. All of these

 

46. A pipe varies uniformly in diameter from 2 m to 4 m. An incompressible fluid enters the pipe with a velocity of 16m/sec. What is the velocity of fluid when it leaves the pipe?

A. 64 m/sec
B. 8 m/sec
C. 32 m/sec
D. 4 m/sec

 

47. Transverse waves cannot be set up in ___.

A. Metals
B. Fluids
C. Solids
D. Soil

 

48. The ratio of the __________ is called magnification.

A. image size to object size
B. eyepiece size to object size
C. object size to image size
D. None of these

 

49. Which of the following has the highest resistivity?

A. Germanium
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Platinum

 

50. An n-type semi-conductor is made by doping silicon crystal with:

A. Indium
B. Arsenic
C. Aluminium
D. Both B and C

 

51. Objects cannot be accelerated to the speed of light in free space as a consequence of:

A. Mass variation
B. Inertia forces
C. Energy-mass relationship
D. All of these

 

52. A certain radioactive mass decays from 64 gm to 2 gm in 20 days. What is its half-life?

A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 4 days
D. 6 days

 

53. If the inductance is denoted by L and resistance by R, which of the following is true for a choke?

A. R is large, L is very small
B. Both R and L are large
C. R is very small, L is large
D. Both R and L are very small

 

54. A force 2i + j has moved its point of application from (2,3) to (6,5). What is work done?

A. -10
B. -18
C. +10
D. +18

 

55. The escape velocity corresponds to ___ energy gained by body, which carries it to an infinite distance from the surface of the earth.

A. Total
B. Initial kinetic
C. Potential
D. None of these

 

56. The drag force decreases as the speed of an object moving through fluid ____?

A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Decreases
D. Both B and C

 

57. Light year is a measure of?

A. Distance
B. Intensity of light
C. Time
D. Velocity

 

58. A yellow light of wavelength 500 mm emitted by a single source passes through two narrow slits 1 mm apart. How far apart are two adjacent bright fringes when interference is observed on a screen 10 m away?

A. 5 mm
B. 0.5 mm
C. 1.33 mm
D. 50 mm

 

59. The heat produced by a current I in the wire of resistance R during time interval t is:

A. I2/Rt
B. I2/R/t
C. I2Rt
D. IR2t

 

60. Which of the following is the most ductile?

A. Glass
B. Cast iron
C. Copper
D. High carbon steel

 

CHEMISTRY

61. Which type of bonding is present in NH4Cl?

A. Ionic
B. Coordinate covalent
C. Covalent
D. All of these

 

62. When CuSO4 is electrolyzed in an aqueous solution using copper electrodes, then the substance which deposits at the cathode is:

A. Copper metal
B. Hydrogen
C. Copper ions
D. Oxygen

 

63. Aldehydes can be synthesized by the oxidation of?

A. Primary alcohols
B. Organic acids
C. Secondary alcohols
D. Inorganic acids

 

64. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and?

A. Water
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Sulfur dioxide

 

65. ____ serve as carriers of heredity from one generation to the other?

A. Lipids
B. Formaldehydes
C. Caseins
D. Nucleoproteins

 

66. ____ extraction is controlled by partition law?

A. Iodine
B. Solvent
C. Benzoic acid
D. Stationery

 

67. The process of effusion is best understood by ______ law.

A. Graham’s
B. Boyle’s
C. Charles’s
D. None of these

 

68. ___ has a dipole moment.

A. CO
B. Benzene
C. CO2
D. All of these

 

69. ___ is used as a catalyst in Haber’s process for NH3 gas manufacture?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Carbon
D. Silver

 

70. In many of its properties _____ is quite different from the other alkali metals.

A. Li
B. Na
C. Be
D. K

 

71. Which element forms long chains alternating with oxygen?

A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Silicon
D. All of these

 

72. The percentage of carbon in medium carbon steel is:

A. 0.7 – 1.5
B. 0.2 – 0.7
C. 0.1 – 0.2
D. 1.6 – 2.00

 

73. Name the rare halogen among the following?

A. F
B. I
C. Cl
D. At

 

74. Which bond will break when an electrophile attacks alcohol?

A. – H
B. C – O
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

 

75. The extent of un-saturation in fat is expressed as its:

A. Acid number
B. Saponification number
C. Iodine number
D. None of these

 

76. The process of filtration is used to separate ___ particles from liquids.

A. Radial
B. Insoluble
C. Angular
D. Soluble

 

77. London forces are very significant in ____.

A. Sulphur
B. Argon
C. Phosphorous
D. Sugar

 

78. Which of the following form is an endothermic reaction?

A. 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l)
B. N2(g) + O2(g) N2O2(g)
C. C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
D. None of these

 

79. Name the partially miscible liquids from the following?

A. Alcohol-ether
B. Benzene-water
C. Nicotine-water
D. Both A and B

 

80. AlI3 (Aluminium Iodide) is electrically a ____.

A. Conductor
B. Non-conductor
C. Semiconductor
D. None of these

 

81. The elements of IIIA to VIIIA subgroups except He is known as __ block elements.

A. q
B. p
C. s
D. None of these

 

82. Concentrated nitric acid gives ______ when it reacts with tin.

A. Nitric oxide
B. Ammonium nitrite
C. Meta stannic acid
D. None of these

 

83. Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture?

A. HCl and HNO3
B. Both A and B
C. H3PO4
D. Both HCl and 2COOH

 

84. Alkanes containing _____ carbon atoms are waxy solids.

A. up to 4
B. 18 or more
C. 5 to 17
D. None of these

 

85. Which of the following is used to make chloral hydrate?

A. Acetaldehyde
B. Formaldehyde
C. None of these
D. Both A and B

 

86. Ten moles of hydrogen are allowed to react with 6 moles of oxygen. How much water will be obtained from the reaction on complete consumption of one gas?

A. 10 moles
B. 6 moles
C. 8 moles
D. 4 moles

 

87. The highest temperature a substance can exist as ____ is called its critical temperature.

A. Solid
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Isotope

 

88. ___ hybridization leads to a regular tetrahedral structure.

A. sp3
B. sp
C. sp2
D. All of these

 

89. Osmotic pressure of a solution is ___ property.

A. Obligative
B. Colligative
C. Fractional
D. Automated

 

90. Magnesium reacts with hydrogen at high pressure in the presence of catalyst ___ forming magnesium hydride.

A. Dolomite
B. Mg3N2
C. MgI2
D. Epsom salt

 

91. Which element has the largest number of allotropic forms?

A. Phosphorous
B. Oxygen
C. Sulphur
D. Both A & C

 

92. With the increase in a number of unpaired electrons, paramagnetism:

A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Decreases
D. Decreases then increases

 

93. Which metal is commonly used to remove air bubbles from molten metals?

A. Aluminium
B. Sodium
C. Copper
D. Calcium

 

94. Which of the following bonds has minimum bond energy?

A. C – F
B. C – I
C. C – Cl
D. C – Br

 

95. Which of the following does not react with water?

A. Li
B. Mg
C. Na
D. Be

 

96. Al2O3(SiO2).2H2O is called:

A. Clay
B. Asbestos
C. Talc
D. None of these

 

97. CaO forms fertilize slag by reacting with:

A. P2O5
B. Silica
C. Fe2O3
D. FO

 

98. ___ is a colorless volatile liquid at room temperature.

A. HCl
B. HI
C. HF
D. HBr

 

99. Hydrogen passed through phenol at 150 ºC in the presence of ___ catalyst gives
cyclohexanol.

A. Tin
B. Iron
C. Nickel
D. Sodium

 

101. The mobile phase in paper chromatography is usually:

A. An organic liquid
B. Water
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Silver nitrate

 

102. The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of solid at 1 atm when it melts into liquid form is denoted by ___.

A. Δ Hv
B. Δ Hi
C. Δ Hf
D. Δ Hs

 

103. In synthetic fibers, ___ bonding is responsible for tensile strength.

A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. None of these

 

104. Boiling point of HF is ___ H2O.

A. Lower than
B. Equal to
C. Higher than
D. Almost same as

 

105. ____ is necessary for the development of leaves and it tends to accumulate in leaves and
bark.

A. NO2
B. Gypsum
C. Calcium
D. Nitrogen

 

106. Which of the following is pale yellow to reddish yellow in color?

A. Pb2O
B. PbO
C. PbO2
D. 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2

 

107. In which of the following carbon is double bonded with itself?

A. Alkane
B. Alkene
C. Ether
D. Alkyne

 

108. In this process, higher hydrocarbons can be cracked at lower temperature and lower pressure.

A. Thermal cracking
B. Steam cracking
C. Catalytic cracking
D. Reforming

 

109. Acetic acid is called ____ acid.

A. Methanoic
B. Ethanoic
C. Propanoic
D. Butanoic

 

110. Na may be denoted by _____ electron configuration notation?

A. 1s2 2s1
B. [Ne] 3s1
C. [Ar] 4s1
D. None of these

 

111. Which is the best drying agent in desiccators?

A. KOH
B. CaCl2
C. Gypsum
D. Silica sand

 

112. 100 m3 of a gas at 3 atm pressure and 27° C is transferred to a chamber of 300 m3 volume maintained at a temperature of 327 C°. What will be the pressure in chamber?

A. 6 atm
B. 2 atm
C. 4 atm
D. 1 atm

 

113. The crystals of _____ are ionic solids.

A. Sugar
B. Diamond
C. Iron
D. NaCl

 

114. Which material possesses the highest pH?

A. Soft drinks
B. Milk of magnesia
C. Bananas
D. Sea water

 

115. The electron present in a particular orbit _____ energy.

A. Releases
B. Absorbs
C. Does not radiate
D. None of these

 

116. Al2F2SiO4 is named as:

A. Gibbsite
B. Bauxite
C. Emerald
D. Cryolite

 

117. Name the oxide in which N has the highest oxidation number?

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Nitrogen peroxide
C. Nitric oxide
D. Nitrous anhydride

 

118. Sulphur has an oxidation state of ____.

A. ± 2
B. None of these
C. + 4 and +6
D. Both A and B

 

120. ___ are product of the reaction of an alcohol and aromatic bi-functional acids.

A. Acrylic resins
B. PVCs
C. Polyester resins
D. Polyamide resins

 

ENGLISH

121. He was _____ of all valuable possessions.

A. Robbed
B. Pinched
C. Stolen
D. Established

 

122. The presence of armed guards ______ us from doing anything disruptive.

A. Defeated
B. Irritated
C. Excited
D. Prevented

 

123. Our flight was _____ from Lahore to Islamabad airport.

A. Diverted
B. Deflected
C. Reflected
D. Shifted

 

124. I am _____ forward to our picnic scheduled for next month.

A. Looking
B. Seeing
C. Planning
D. Going

 

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.

 

125. They did not guess how closely he had kept in touch with across the road.
                      A                      B                       C                                   D

 

126. He proved that if only germs were excluded of wounds, inflammation was averted.
                            A                         B                               C                  D

 

127. The man felt his hair flutter (A) and the tissues of his body drew (B) tight as if he were standing (C) at the centre of a vacuum (D).
    

 

128. He came to the hurdles that he remember, over which once he had so easy a victory.
                    A                                     B                                C                                  D

 

129. What is meant by birth-rate and death-rate and how do they effect the population?
                       A                                        B                           C                            D

 

Q.130 She had left (A) him with a calmness and a poise (B) that accord (C) well with his own inward (D) emotions.

 

In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

131.

A. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed in the job
B. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed by the job
C. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed on the job
D. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed for the job

 

132.

A. They tried to pacify him for kindness and affection
B. They tried to pacify him by kindness and affection
C. They tried to pacify him in kindness and affection
D. They tried to pacify him with kindness and affection

 

133.

A. Then he sat down in corner and remained queit
B. Then he sat down in corner and remain quiet
C. Then he sat down in corner and remained quite
D. Then he sat down in corner and remained quiet

 

134.

A. He was drenched with the hotness of his fear
B. He was drenched by the hotness of his fear
C. He was drenched in the hotness of his fear
D. He was drenched off the hotness of his fear

 

135.

A. Why did you disagree with me?
B. Why did you disagree on me?
C. Why did you disagree to me?
D. Why did you disagree by me?

 

136.

A. Do not stuff your head by things you do not understand.
B. Do not stuff your head with things you do not understand.
C. Do not stuff your head for things you do not understand.
D. Do not stuff your head in things you do not understand.

 

137.

A. A day later he reached his first glimpse of Lahore.
B. A day later he took his first glimpse of Lahore.
C. A day later he found his first glimpse of Lahore.
D. A day later he caught his first glimpse of Lahore.

 

138.

A. This will have a bad impact to the economy
B. This will have a bad impact at the economy.
C. This will have a bad impact on the economy.
D. This will have a bad impact over the economy.

 

139.

A. It would save him from dying of thirst.
B. It would save him from dying with thirst.
C. It would save him from dying from thirst.
D. It would save him from dying by thirst.

 

140.

A. All this flashed by his mind in an instant of protest.
B. All this flashed on his mind in an instant of protest.
C. All this flashed through his mind in an instant of protest.
All this flashed by off mind in an instant of protest.

 

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

141. VEXING

A. Annoying.
B. Viable.
C. Aggressive.
D. Waxy.

 

142. VAGUE

A. Respectful
B. Warlock
C. Uncertain
D. Snow white

 

143. MANGLED

A. Dodged
B. Indisputable
C. Grained
D. Damaged

 

144. PRODIGIOUS

A. Productive
B. Prudential
C. Enormous
D. Waddle

 

145. ASTOUNDED

A. Shocked
B. Assured
C. Discarded
D. Attracted

 

146. SAGACITY

A. Foolishness
B. Onions
C. Large City
D. Wisdom

 

147. GRIM

A. Gratis
B. Severe
C. Restless
D. Grater

 

 

148. INDOLENTLY

A. Lazily
B. Ideally
C. Indecently
D. Gaily

 

149. PERISH

A. Furious
B. Secret
C. Come to death
D. Frustrated

 

BIOLOGY

151. Which of the following receptors produce sensation of pain?

A. Mechanoreceptor
B. Chemoreceptors
C. Thermoreceptors
D. None of the Above

 

152. When your finger accidentally gets caught in a door, the pain message is sent to your brain through ___.

A. Homeostasis
B. Caffeine
C. Sensory receptors
D. The medulla

 

153. Neck has ______ type of joint.

A. Ball and socket
B. Hinge
C. Pivot
D. Fibrous

 

154. End product of hemoglobin break down is:

A. Creatinine
B. Hypoxanthin
C. Bilirubin
D. Xanthin

 

155. In what direction, can a DNA polymerase work when catalyzing the addition of nucleotide monomers to build a strand of DNA?

A. From the 5′ toward the 3′ end of the new strand being assembled
B. From the replication centers in two directions called replication forks
C. From the 3′ to the 5′ end of the strand being assembled
D. In both directions if DNA ligase is present

 

156. Which bond is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities?

A. C-N
B. C-H
C. C-O
D. H-O

 

157. Sharks and rays are included in class:

A. Cyclostomata
B. Osteichthyes
C. Chondrichthyes
D. Tetrapoda

 

158. In what stage of aerobic respiration are 2-carbon molecules oxidized completely to carbon dioxide?

A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. ETC
D. Calvin cycle

 

159. Which of the following does not have specialized respiratory organs?

A. Hydra
B. Cockroach
C. Birds
D. Both A and B

 

160. Hummingbirds belong to the category:

A. Heterotherms
B. Ectotherms
C. Endotherms
D. None of these

 

161. Syphilis is caused by:

A. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema Pallidum
C. Cats Worm
D. Herpes Simplex

 

162. In moths’ male is ____.

A. Heterogametic
B. Homogametic
C. Dieogametic
D. Both B and C.

 

163. When carbon dioxide pressure increases the capacity of hemoglobin to hold oxygen:

A. Increases many folds
B. Remains constant
C. Decreases
D. Is doubled

 

164. The soluble part of the cytoplasm is termed as:

A. Cisternae
B. Endocytosis
C. Cytosol
D. Both A and B

 

165. Name the enveloped RNA virus that causes infusion hepatitis.

A. HBV
B. HCV
C. HAV
D. None of these

 

166. In general, asexual reproduction is common in:

A. Humans
B. Deuteromycota
C. Basidiomycota
D. Basidiospores

 

167. Name the vertebrates which are without jaws.

A. Osteichthyes
B. Chondrichthyes
C. Cyclostomata
D. None of these

 

168. The total inside capacity of lungs of adult human beings when fully inflated is:

A. 5 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 50 ml
D. 5000 ml

 

169. Which of the following belong to collenchyma cells?

A. Fibers
B. Sclereides
C. Vessels
D. None of these

 

170. Which of the following promotes both leaf and fruit growths?

A. Auxins
B. Abscisic acid
C. Gibberellins
D. Ethane

 

171. Name the external factor of growth in plants?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hormones
C. Water
D. Nutrition

 

172. The genes of blue opsin are present on?

A. Autosome 9
B. Autosome 1
C. Autosome 7
D. Autosome 3

 

173. The dew drops on tips of grass leaves is an example of?

A. Infestation
B. Exudation
C. Bleeding
D. Imbibition

 

174. Which of the following modifies proteins and lipids by adding carbohydrates?

A. Golgi Apparatus
B. Plasma membrane
C. Polysome
D. None of these

 

175. Which of the following are spiral-shaped bacteria?

A. Cocci
B. Pseudomonas
C. Bacilli
D. Vibrio

 

176. Which of the following is used for lowering blood cholesterol?

A. Neurospora
B. Aspergillus
C. Griseofulvin
D. Lovastatin

 

177. Which of the following are called placental mammals?

A. Prototheria
B. Metatheria
C. Eutheria
D. All of these

 

178. The attraction among water molecules which hold water together is called:

A. Tension
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Ambibition

 

179. Pick the paratonic movement from the following?

A. Nastic
B. Growth
C. Turgor
D. Tactic

 

180. It controls the several automatic functions like breathing, heart rate and blood pressure:

A. Midbrain
B. Medulla
C. Pons
D. Cerebellum

 

181. Which of the following has 40 chromosomes?

A. Corn
B. Frog
C. Sugarcane
D. Mouse

 

182. The cell suspension culture of _____ produces quinine.

A. Soybean
B. Digitalis lanata
C. Cinchona ledgeriana
D. Luceferin

 

183. Which one of the following is most slender in structure?

A. Microtubules
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Micro filaments
D. Both A and B

 

184. Name the human tissues that contain about 85% water.

A. Nerve cells
B. Brain cells
C. Bone cells
D. None of these

 

185. Which of the following are colorless?

A. Chloroplasts
B. Leucoplasts
C. Chromoplasts
D. None of these

 

186. Name the one involved in DNA replication.

A. Cysts
B. Ribosomes
C. Mesosomes
D. Spores

 

187. Which of the following has rootless sporophytes?

A. Psilopsida
B. Lycopsida
C. Tracheophyta
D. Sphenopsida

 

188. Chlorophylls absorb mainly ____ wavelength.

A. Yellow
B. Violet-blue
C. Green
D. Indigo

 

189. _____ did not have the adaptations to remove the flooding of their cells in fresh water.

A. Both C, D
B. None of C, D
C. Hydrophytes
D. Xerophytes

 

190. Which of the following is made up of bones and cartilage?

A. Endoskeleton
B. Hydrostatic skeleton
C. Exoskeleton
D. Both A and B

 

191. This disease is characterized by the decline in brain function.

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Epilepsy
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. None of these

 

192. Prophase, metaphase and telophase are subdivisions of?

A. Mitosis
B. Cytokinesis
C. Karyokinesis
D. None of these

 

193. ___ organs are functionally different but structurally alike.

A. Analogous
B. Homologous
C. Unilogous
D. Hypologous

 

194. Which of the following gives blue color with iodine?

A. Starch
B. Glycogen
C. Cellulose
D. All of these

 

195. Herpes simplex is caused by ____ virus.

A. Enveloped RNA
B. Glycogen
C. RNA tumor
D. Both B and C

 

196. Name the cyanobacteria which are helpful in fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

A. Heterocysts
B. Akinetes
C. Nostoc
D. Hormogonia

 

197. Name the class that contains seedless plants.

A. Angiospermae
B. Paraphsys
C. Gemnospermae
D. Filicineae

 

198. Which form of anaerobic respiration occurs in muscle cell of humans and other animals during extreme physical activities?

A. Alcoholic fermentation
B. Glycolysis
C. Lactic acid fermentation
D. Pyruvic acid oxidation

 

199. How much water approximately is required to excrete 1 kg of ammonia nitrogen?

A. 500 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 500 ml

 

200. Which disease causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints?

A. Sciatica
B. Disc slip
C. Spondylosis
D. Rickets

 

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