Note: MDCAT Solved Past Papers MCQs Set-1 comprises 190+ important Physics, Biology, Chemistry, and English MCQs. These MCQs are taken from different Past Papers and are helpful in MDCAT, ETEA, and different Medical related posts.


1. Which one is the highest power multiple?

A. Giga
B. Mega
C. Tera
D. Deca


Correct Answer: C. Tera


2. SI unit of charge is ___.

A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Calorie


Correct Answer: A. Ampere


3. The electrical analog of mass is electricity is ____?

A. Capacitance
B. Charge
C. Inductance
D. Resistance


Correct Answer: B. Charge


4. Which one of the following relations is correct?

A. 1 wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
B. 1 wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
C. 1 Tesla = 104 Gausses
D. All of these


Correct Answer: D. All of these


5. Life time of electron in metastable state is about ____.

A. 10-5 sec
B. 10-8 sec
C. 10-3 sec
D. 10-2 sec


Correct Answer: B. 10-8 sec


6. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by___.

A. τ = NIAB cos α
B. τ = NIAB sin α
C. τ = BIL sin α
D. τ = BIL cos α


Correct Answer: A. τ = NIAB cos α


7. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope ____.

A. Controls number of waves
B. Accelerates electrons
C. Controls the brightness of spot formed
D. Has positive potential with respect to cathode


Correct Answer: C. Controls the brightness of spot formed


8. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:

A. The angle of projection
B. The mass of the projectile
C. The initial velocity of projection
D. Speed and mass of the projectile


Correct Answer: A. The angle of projection


9. If velocity is double, then:

A. Momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
B. Momentum and K.E remain same
C. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times


Correct Answer: D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times


10. The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:

A. 20 J
B. 30 J
C. 120 J
D. 0.02 J


Correct Answer: C. 120 J


11. In transistors, the base region is very thin, of the order of:

A. 10-5 cm
B. 10-6 mm
C. 10-6 m
D. 10-6 μm


Correct Answer: C. 10-6 m


12. The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on:

A. Internal structure of OP-AMP
B. Voltage of power supplies
C. Externally connected resistances = right
D. Input resistance


Correct Answer: C. Externally connected resistances


13. The net charge on an N-type substance is:

A. 0.7 volts
B. 0.25 volts
C. 0.3 volts
D. 0.07 volts


Correct Answer: A. 0.7 volts


14. The value of Wien’s constant is:

A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK
B. 4.22 x 10-7 mK
C. 3.34 x 10-4 mK
D. 3.42 x 10-8 mK


Correct Answer: A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK


15. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:

A. High frequency
B. Threshold frequency
C. Low frequency
D. Resonance frequency


Correct Answer: C. Low frequency


16. In pair production, the type of photon used:

A. α-particle
B. X-rays
C. β-particle
D. γ-radiations


Correct Answer: D. γ-radiations


17. The lifetime of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
B. 1.15 x 1010 J
C. 1.05 x 10-26 J
D. 2.19 x 10-40 J


Correct Answer: C. 1.05 x 10-26 J


18. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:

A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
B. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
C. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec


Correct Answer: D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec


19. LASER is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?

A. Radioactive
B. Ionization
C. Fission
D. Fusion


Correct Answer: D. Fusion


20. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by?

A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt
B. ΔN ∝ -nΔt
C. ΔN = KNΔt
D. ΔN = -ΔNΔt


Correct Answer: A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt


21. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as?

B. – NΔt
C. – ΔNΔt


Correct Answer: A. ΔN/NΔ


22. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to?

A. kJ / mol
B. kg / J
C. J / mol
D. J / kg


Correct Answer: D. J / kg


23. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines?

A. Only variable in the equation
B. Correctness of an equation
C. Only constant in the equation
D. Constant and variable in the equation


Correct Answer: B. Correctness of an equation


24. For a body to be in complete equilibrium?

A. Linear acceleration is zero
B. Angular acceleration is zero
C. Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero


Correct Answer: D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero


25. If the length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is?

A. Zero
B. Fl sin θ
C. Ff
D. Fl sin θλ


Correct Answer: A. Zero


26. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y
components will be:

A. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
C. Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
D. Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4


Correct Answer: B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4


27. The difference between a vector B and its negative vector –B is:

A. A null vector
B. Twice the magnitude of the vector
C. Equal to the magnitude of the vector
D. Smaller than the magnitude of the vector


Correct Answer: B. Twice the magnitude of vector


28. Time of projectile’s flight is:

A. vi2 sin2 θg
B. C) vi2 sin θg
C. 2vi sin θg
D. i̇ 2gsin 2θ


Correct Answer: C. 2vi sin θg


29. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

A. variable acceleration
B. uniform velocity
C. uniform acceleration
D. negative acceleration


Correct Answer: C. uniform acceleration


30. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:

A. aS = vf – vi̇ 2
B. 2S = avf2 – vi̇ 2
C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2
D. aS = 2vf2 – vi̇ 2


Correct Answer: C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2


31. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be:

A. 24 sec
B. 12 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 8 sec


Correct Answer: C. 2 sec


32. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

A. Electric force
B. Gravitational force
C. Elastic spring force
D. Frictional force


Correct Answer: D. Frictional force


33. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is:

A. 11 km/sec
B. 2.4 km/sec
C. 10.4 km/sec
D. 4.3 km/sec


Correct Answer: B. 2.4 km/sec


34. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:

A. kWm-2
B. 1.0 Wm-2
C. 1.4 kWm-2
D. 1.4 Wm-2


Correct Answer: A. kWm-2


35. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:

A. Equal to its real weight
B. Zero
C. Less than its real weight
D. Greater than its real weight


Correct Answer: D. Greater than its real weight


36. The moment of inertial of a thin rod is:

A. 1/2 mL2
B. 1/12mL
C. 1/4 m3L
D. 1/12mL2


Correct Answer: D. 1/12mL2


37. A wheel of radius 1 m covers an angular displacement of 180. Its linear displacement is:

A. 3.14 m
B. 6.28 m
C. π rad
D. 0.157 m


Correct Answer: A. 3.14 m


38. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:

A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Equation of motion
C. Venturi meter
D. Equation of continuity


Correct Answer: D. Equation of continuity


39. The blood vessels collapse when?

A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
B. External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
C. External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
D. External pressure applied is zero


Correct Answer: A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure


40. An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at?

A. Extreme position
B. Between extreme and mean position
C. Mean position
D. Beyond extreme position


Correct Answer: A. Extreme position


41. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:

A. g cos θ
B. mg cos θ
C. mg sin θ
D. mg


Correct Answer: B. mg cos θ


42. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is?

A. Zero amplitude
B. Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
C. The sum of amplitude of the two waves
D. Double the amplitude of either wave


Correct Answer: A. Zero amplitude


43. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is?

A. 244 Hz
B. 248 Hz
C. 236 Hz
D. 246 Hz


Correct Answer: A. 244 Hz


44. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is?

A. 25 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 75 cm


Correct Answer: B. 100 cm


45. In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is?

A. λ/4
B. λ
C. λ/2
D. λ/3


Correct Answer: C. λ/2


46. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is?

A. (m + ½) λ
B. d sin θ
C. mλ
D. 3λ


Correct Answer: A. (m + ½) λ


47. In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as?

A. λ / Δλ
B. λ / λ1
C. λ / D
D. N x m


Correct Answer: A. λ / Δλ


48. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

A. Visible light
B. Ordinary light
C. Ultraviolet light
D. Invisible infrared light


Correct Answer: D. Invisible infrared light


49. The value of universal gas constant is:

A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1
B. 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
C. 8.324 Jmol-1K-1
D. 1.00 Jmol-1K-1


Correct Answer: A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1


50. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 70%


Correct Answer: A. 50%


51. Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?

A. Molecules do not exert force on each other
B. The size of molecules is much larger than separation between the molecules
C. A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
D. The gas molecules are not in random motion


Correct Answer: A. Molecules do not exert force on each other


52. Which one is not an irreversible process?

A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
B. Explosion
C. Changes due to friction
D. Dissipation of energy


Correct Answer: A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder


53. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is?

A. Perpendicular to the direction of field
B. At a certain angle
C. Opposite to the direction of force
D. Along the direction of force


Correct Answer: D. Along the direction of force


54. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the

A. ΔV = Ed
B. ΔV =Eqo
C. ΔV = E/d
D. E =dΔV


Correct Answer: A. ΔV = Ed


55. SI unit of electric flux is?

A. NmC-1
B. Nm2C-2
C. Nm-2C-2
D. Nm2C-2


Correct Answer: B. Nm2C-2


56. The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is:

A. Electronic current
B. Magnetic lines
C. Electric current
D. Conventional current


Correct Answer: D. Conventional current


57. If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit time is:

B. I2R
C. Both a & b
D. All of the above


Correct Answer: D. All of the above


58. The substances like germanium and silicon have:

A. Negative temperature coefficients
B. Both A and B
C. Positive temperature coefficients
D. None of the above


Correct Answer: A. Negative temperature coefficients


59. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by?

A. Increasing magnetic field
B. Increasing BAN Ration
C. Increasing number of turns of the coil
D. Decreasing length of couple ‘c’


Correct Answer: B. Increasing BAN Ration


60. Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:

A. F = NIA cos α
B. F = ILB sin α
C. F = μnI
D. F = ILA cos α


Correct Answer: B. F = ILB sin α



61. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

A. pH scale
B. Hydrogen Scale
C. pOH scale
D. pKa scale


Correct Answer: B. Hydrogen Scale


62. The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the Voltaic cell is:

A. Hydrolysis reaction
B. Redox reaction
C. Oxidation reaction
D. Reduction reaction


Correct Answer: B. Redox reaction


63. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme ___ present in yeast.

A. Urease
B. Sucrase
C. Invertase
D. Zymase


Correct Answer: D. Zymase


64. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by ___ method.

A. Dilatometric
B. Optical rotation
C. Refractometric
D. Electrical conductivity


Correct Answer: D. Electrical conductivity


65. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions is dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:

A. -1891 kJmol-1
B. -499 kJmol-1
C. -1075 kJmol-1
D. -1562 kJmol-1


Correct Answer: C. -1075 kJmol-1


66. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is?

A. Electron affinity
B. Ionization energy
C. Lattice energy
D. Crystal energy


Correct Answer: B. Ionization energy


67. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?

A. Li2CO3
B. K2CO3
C. Mg2CO3
D. Na2CO3


Correct Answer: A. Li2CO3


68. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

A. Leaves
B. Root hairs
C. Fruits
D. Branches


Correct Answer: B. Root hairs


69. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

A. Sodium Sulphate
B. Potassium Sulphate
C. Barium Sulphate
D. Zinc Sulphate


Correct Answer: C. Barium Sulphate


70. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is?

A. A gradual increase
B. First decrease then increase
C. A gradual decrease
D. First increase then decrease


Correct Answer: A. A gradual increase


71. White lead has one of the following properties?

A. Acidic
B. Amorphous
C. Crystalline
D. Neutral


Correct Answer: B. Amorphous


72. The strongest acid among the following is:

B. HCl
D. HBr


Correct Answer: C. HI


73. The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is:

A. Radon
B. Krypton
C. Xenon
D. Argon


Correct Answer: A. Radon


74. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence of:

A. Unpaired electrons
B. Protons
C. Paired electrons
D. Neutrons


Correct Answer: A. Unpaired electrons


75. The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of ____ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom?

A. Hybridization
B. Deprotonation
C. Protonation
D. Dissociation


Correct Answer: A. Hybridization


76. KMnO4 acts as a:

A. Reducing agent
B. Germicide
C. Excellent precipitating reagent
D. Oxidizing agent


Correct Answer: D. Oxidizing agent


77. A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:

A. Oxidative cleavage
B. Catalytic cracking
C. Thermal cracking
D. Steam cracking


Correct Answer: B. Catalytic cracking


78. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by:

A. sp-s overlap
B. 2py-2py overlap
C. sp3-sp3 overlap
D. sp-sp overlap


Correct Answer: D. sp-sp overlap


79. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

A. Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
B. Reduction Reaction
C. Hydrogenolysis Reaction
D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction


Correct Answer: D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction


80. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:

A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl
B. Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
C. Al2O3 and NH4Cl
D. Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3


Correct Answer: A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl


81. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

A. Alkyl group
B. Benzyl group
C. Phenyl group
D. Methyl group


Correct Answer: C. Phenyl group


82. The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of ____ at 50 °C-55 °C.

A. Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
B. Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
C. Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4


Correct Answer: D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4


83. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

A. Gets inverted
B. Depends upon the carbon atom
C. Remains same
D. Depends upon the electronegativity of halide


Correct Answer: A. Gets inverted


84. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

A. Dry Ether
B. Alcohol
C. Sodium Lead Alloy
D. Water


Correct Answer: A. Dry Ether


85. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:

A. ZnO + CoO2
B. ZnO + Ag2O
C. ZnO + CuO
D. Cr2O3 + ZnO


Correct Answer: D. Cr2O3 + ZnO


86. Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is:

A. ZnCl2
B. C6H5N
C. ThO2
D. Cr2O3


Correct Answer: C. ThO2


87. Dissociation constant of phenol is:

A. 1. 2 x 10-10
B. 1.3 x 1010
C. 1.2 x 1010
D. 1.3 x 10-10


Correct Answer: D. 1.3 x 10-10


88. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:

A. Formaldehyde
B. Calcium acetate
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Sodium acetate


Correct Answer: C. Acetaldehyde


89. Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into:

A. Carboxylic Acid
B. Cyanohydride
C. Acid Amide
D. Formaldehyde


Correct Answer: A. Carboxylic Acid


90. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

A. Sodium borohydride
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Sodium bisulphite
D. Fehling’s solution


Correct Answer: D. Fehling’s solution


91. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:

A. Neutral
B. Amphoteric
C. Acidic
D. Basic


Correct Answer: D. Basic


92. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

D. H3C2-COO-C2H5


Correct Answer: B. H3C2-CO-OH


93. Collagen and albumin are:

A. Simple proteins
B. Polyamides
C. Derived proteins
D. Polysaccharides


Correct Answer: A. Simple proteins


94. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:

A. CO2
B. CaO
D. C


Correct Answer: A. CO2


95. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:

A. Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O
C. 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
D. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O


Correct Answer: B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O


96. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

A. Caustic soda
B. Alum
C. Lime water
D. Soda ash


Correct Answer: B. Alum


97. The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Super oxides
C. Per oxides
D. Normal oxides


Correct Answer: C. Per oxides


98. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of?

A. 20.414 dm3
B. 22.414 cm3
C. 22.414 dm3
D. 23.414 dm3


Correct Answer: C. 22.414 dm3


99. The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:

A. Mass Spectrometry
B. Chromatography
C. X-rays
D. Solvent Extraction


Correct Answer: A. Mass Spectrometry


100. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called:

A. Mass-mass relationship
B. Mole-volume relationship
C. Mass-mole relationship
D. Mass-volume relationship


Correct Answer: D. Mass-volume relationship


101. Sublimation is used to purify:

A. Ammonium sulphate
B. Benzoic acid
C. Sodium chloride
D. Lead carbonate


Correct Answer: B. Benzoic acid


102. The purity of a substance can be identified by?

A. Sublimation
B. Chromatography
C. Filtration
D. Solvent extraction


Correct Answer: B. Chromatography


103. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?

A. V= RnTP (when ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
B. V= RPnT (when ‘P’ and ‘n’ are constant)
C. V= RnT P (when ‘P’, ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)


Correct Answer: D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)


104. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

A. Molar mass
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume


Correct Answer: A. Molar mass


105. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of?

A. Ions and electrons
B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms
C. Electrons and neutral atoms
D. Ions and neutral atoms


Correct Answer: B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms


106. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

A. Dipole-dipole forces
B. London dispersion forces
C. Dipole-induced dipole forces
D. hydrogen bonding


Correct Answer: B. London dispersion forces


107. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by ___ Cl- ions.

A. Four
B. Five
C. Eight
D. Six


Correct Answer: D. Six


108. The charge of one gram of electron is:

A. 1.7588 x 10-11
B. 1.602 x 10-19
C. 1.7588 x 1011
D. 1.7588 x 108


Correct Answer: D. 1.7588 x 108


109. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is:

A. Zero
B. 1313.31 kJmol-1
C. 13.13 kJmol-1
D. 1313.31 k2Jmol


Correct Answer: B. 1313.31 kJmol-1


110. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

A. Principal Quantum Number
B. Magnetic Quantum Number
C. Spin Quantum Number
D. Azimuthal Quantum Number


Correct Answer: B. Magnetic Quantum Number


111. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:

A. 314 pm
B. 95 pm
C. 181 pm
D. 300 pm


Corrrect Answer: A. 314 pm


112. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:

A. One σ and two π
B. Three σ only
C. One σ and one π
D. Two σ and one π


Correct Answer: A. One σ and two π


113. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

A. NH3
B. BF3
C. CHCl3
D. H2O


Correct Answer: B. BF3


114. A spontaneous process is:

A. Unidirectional and irreversible
B. Unidirectional and a real process
C. Irreversible and a real process
D. All of the above


Correct Answer: D. All of the above


115. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is __ kJmol-1.

A. +16.2
B. +4.98
C. -25.0
D. +26.0


Correct Answer: A. +16.2


116. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)

A. mol3dm-6
B. mol-3dm6
C. moldm-3
D. No unit


Correct Answer: D. No unit


117. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution, the percentage ionization of acetic acid will be?

A. 13
B. 1.3
C. 15
D. 0.1


Correct Answer: B. 1.3


118. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 is:

A. Increases with temperature
B. Shows exceptional behavior
C. Decreases with temperature
D. Remains constant


Correct Answer: B. Shows exceptional behavior


119. Seawater has 5.65 x 10-3 g of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of O2 in parts per million is:

A. 5.65
B. 5.20
C. 7.69
D. 4.11


Correct Answer: A. 5.65


120. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their ___ throughout the metallic lattice?

A. Atoms
B. Electrons
C. Molecules
D. Ions


Correct Answer: B. Electrons



121. My advice had no __ on him.

A. Effect
B. Influence
C. Affect
D. Impression


Correct Answer: A. Effect


122. Do not lose heart, it is just a __ in the tea cup.

A. Wind
B. Blast
C. Cyclone
D. Storm


Correct Answer: D. Storm


123. Pakistan ____ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

A. Prevented
B. Abstained
C. Detained
D. Refused


Correct Answer: B. Abstained


124. Please ____ the door after you.

A. Close
B. Leave
C. Shut
D. Knock


Correct Answer: C. Shut


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.


A. This is different to what had been expected.
B. This is different from what had been expected.
C. This is different what had been expected.
D. This is different to what would be expected.


Correct Answer: B. This is different from what had been expected.



A. He suddenly remembered that he has left his house unlocked.
B. He suddenly remembered that he may have left his house unlocked.
C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked.
D. He suddenly remembered that he will have left his house unlocked.


Correct Answer: C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked. 



A. He asked us would we care to go.
B. He asked us we would care to go.
C. He asked us if we would care to go.
D. He asked us we will care to go.




A. When this war is over, no nation will either be isolated in war or peace.
B. When this war is over, no nation will be either isolated in war or peace.
C. When this war is over, no nation will neither be isolated in war nor peace.
D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.


Correct Answer: D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.



A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.
D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him.


Correct Answer: B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.



A. He said there has been no need to do it.
B. He said there had been not any need doing it.
C. He said there wasn’t no need to do it.
D. He said there was no need to do it.


Correct Answer: D. He said there was no need to do it.



A. I could barely make of the traffic sings through the rain.
B. I could barely make out the traffic signs because of the rain.
C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.
D. I could barely make with the traffic signs through the rain.


Correct Answer: C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.



A. He walked as though he is lame.
B. He walked as though he were lame.
C. He walked as though he was lame.
D. He walked as though he may have been lame.


Correct Answer: B. He walked as though he were lame.



A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
B. E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.
C. E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
D. E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.


Correct Answer: A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.



A. The remain of the body was thrown into the sea.
B. The remains of the body were thrown to the sea.
C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.
D. The remains of the body was thrown into the sea.


Correct Answer: C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.


In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.


A. Roll about
B. Protest
C. Mock
D. Borrow


Correct Answer: A. Roll about



A. Guide
B. Expert critic of art
C. Artist
D. Teacher


Correct Answer: B. Expert critic of art



A. Lunatic
B. Upset
C. Stern
D. Odd


Correct Answer: D. Odd



A. Rounded stone / Hill
B. Magnanimity
C. Builder
D. Magnitude


Correct Answer: A. Rounded stone / Hill



A. Heap
B. Knee
C. Humble
D. Sleep


Correct Answer: D. Sleep



A. Increment
B. Excitement
C. Waste matter expelled from body
D. Disagreement


Correct Answer: C. Waste matter expelled from body



A. Vision
B. Trunk less
C. Illusion
D. A person’s face


Correct Answer: D. A person’s face



A. Intense Happiness
B. Inspire
C. Respite
D. Sensational


Correct Answer: A. Intense Happiness



A. Sojourn
B. Gallows
C. Entangled
D. Cascade


Correct Answer: C. Entangled



A. Hesitate
B. Hate
C. Concentrate
D. Fascinate


Correct Answer: D. Fascinate



145. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:

A. Crustacea
B. Myriapoda
C. Insecta
D. Arachnida


Correct Answer: D. Arachnida


146. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?

A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Nematoda


Correct Answer: A. Echinodermata


147. Type of respiration which involves step by step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called:

A. External respiration
B. Pulmonary respiration
C. Cellular respiration
D. Cutaneous respiration


Correct Answer: D. Cutaneous respiration


148. An instrument that is used to measure the relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called:

A. Spectrometer
B. Barometer
C. Photometer
D. Spectrophotometer


Correct Answer: C. Photometer


149. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation, and anaerobic respiration are:

A. Citric acid, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
C. Ethyl alcohol, citric acid and carbon dioxide
D. Methanol, lactic acid and citric acid


Correct Answer: B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water


150. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?

A. Digestion of triglycerides
B. Digestion of all types of food
C. Digestion of lipids
D. Digestion of carbohydrates


Correct Answer: D. Digestion of carbohydrates


151. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?

A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine
C. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine


Correct Answer: B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine


152. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is?

A. Obesity
B. Dyspepsia
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Bulimia nervosa


Correct Answer: C. Anorexia nervosa


153. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?

A. Air sac
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Bronchioles


Correct Answer: A. Air sac 


154. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. pH
C. Temperature
D. Light


Correct Answer: B. pH


155. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:

A. Contraction of lungs
B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles
C. Contraction of intercostal membrane
D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles


Correct Answer: B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles


156. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

A. Glycerol
B. Amino acids
C. Sterol D)
D. Cholesterol


Correct Answer: D. Cholesterol


157. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:

A. Lymph nodes
B. Tonsils
C. Red bone marrow
D. Spleen


Correct Answer: C. Red bone marrow


158. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.
B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
D. It is present at upper end of left atrium.


Correct Answer: A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.


159. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:

A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves
D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart


Correct Answer: C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves


160. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Creatine
D. Creatinine


Correct Answer: A. Uric acid


161. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:

A. Liver
B. Nephron
C. Kidney
D. Glomerulus


Correct Answer: A. Liver


162. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

A. Striated muscles
B. Sphincter muscles
C. Smooth muscles
D. Circular muscles


Correct Answer: B. Sphincter muscles 


163. The living cells of cartilage are called:

A. Chrondrocytes
B. Ostecytes
C. Osteoblasts
D. Osteoclasts


Correct Answer: A. Chrondrocytes 


164. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
B. Arthritis
C. Disc slip
D. Spondylosis


Correct Answer: D. Spondylosis 


165. During muscle contraction

A. I-band shortens
B. Actin filaments shorten
C. Myosin filaments shorten
D. Z-line disappears


Correct Answer: A. I-band shortens 


166. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?

A. They initiate new biochemical reactions
B. They may be proteins
C. They are poured directly into blood
D. They affect target cells


Correct Answer: A. They initiate new biochemical reactions 


167. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviors respond to which combination /s:

A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
C. Aggression, mating and altruism
D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation.


Correct Answer: C. Aggression, mating and altruism 


168. A typical neuron at rest:

A. Is more positive outside than inside
B. Has no charge on either side
C. Is more negative outside than inside
D. has an equal charge on either side


Correct Answer: A. Is more positive outside than inside 


169. The first cells produced by the repeated cell division of germinal epithelium of testis are:

A. Interstitial cells
B. Secondary spermatocytes
C. Spermatogonia
D. Spermatids


Correct Answer: C. Spermatogonia 


170. Which chromosomal abnormality in humans causes aggressive and antisocial behavior?



Correct Answer: B. XYY 


171. Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:

A. Muscle cells
B. Notochord and neural tube
C. Gut
D. Larval epidermis


Correct Answer: B. Notochord and neural tube 


172. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?

A. Chromosomal rearrangement
B. Chromosomal aberration
C. Transposition of gene
D. Point mutation


Correct Answer: D. Point mutation 


173. The karyotype of an individual is ____ of chromosomes.

A. Number
B. Number, types and chemical composition
C. Types
D. Number and types


Correct Answer: D. Number and types 


174. The Process of replication of DNA begins at:

A. One place only without any specific sequence of DNA
B. One or more places without any specific sequence of DNA
C. Any place with the uncoiling of two strands of DNA
D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides


Correct Answer: D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides 


175. Amino acid attaches at which site of RNA:

A. Anticodon site
B. 3’-site with terminal OH
C. Ribosomes recognition site
D. Activation enzyme recognition site


Correct Answer: B. 3’-site with terminal OH 


176. Microtubules of spindle fibers are composed of a protein called:

A. Tubulin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Troponin


Correct Answer: A. Tubulin 


177. The kinetochore fibers contract and spindle or pole fibers elongate during:

A. Prophase I
B. Telophase I
C. Metaphase I
D. Anaphase I


Correct Answer: D. Anaphase I 


178. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Metastasis
D. Epistasis


Correct Answer: A. Necrosis 


179. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:

A. X-linked
B. Y-linked
C. Autosomal
D. X and Y-linked


Correct Answer: B. Y-linked 


180. Epistasis is a relationship between:

A. Alleles of a gene
B. Two contrasting traits
C. Two different genes at the same locus
D. Two different genes at different loci


Correct Answer: D. Two different genes at different loci 


181. Gene for albinism in man is present on chromosome number:

A. 11
B. 21
C. 22
D. 12


Correct Answer: A. 11 


182. Gene can be synthesized in the laboratory from messenger RNA by using:

A. Restriction enzymes
B. Vector
C. cDNA (complementary DNA)
D. Reverse transcriptase


Correct Answer: D. Reverse transcriptase 


183. Antibiotic resistance genes for tetracycline and ampicillin are present in the plasmid:

A. pSC 101
B. pBR 322
C. pCR 101
D. pBR 233


Correct Answer: B. pBR 322 


184. Cloning is a form of:

A. Sexual Reproduction
B. Vegetative Propagation
C. Asexual Reproduction
D. Genetic Recombination


Correct Answer: B. Vegetative Propagation 


185. Group of interbreeding individuals of particular species, sharing common geographical area is called:

A. Population
B. Community
C. Community ecology
D. Autecology


Correct Answer: A. Population 


186. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?

A. Haemoglobin
B. Cytochrome
C. Myoglobin
D. Pilin


Correct Answer: B. Cytochrome 


187. Ozone filters ultraviolet radiations from the sun in the upper:

A. Biosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Atmosphere
D. Hydrosphere


Correct Answer: C. Atmosphere 


188. A parasite living inside body of the host is called:

A. Ectoparasite
B. Facultative parasite
C. Obligate parasite
D. Endoparasite


Correct Answer: D. Endoparasite 


189. An association between two organisms benefiting both is called:

A. Commensalism
B. Predation
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis


Correct Answer: D. Symbiosis 


190. In aquatic ecosystem, human activities may accelerate the process of:

A. Eutrophication
B. Decomposition
C. Photosynthesis
D. Recycling


Correct Answer: A. Eutrophication 


191. Beri Beri is due to:

A. Metabolic disorder
B. Nutritional deficiency
C. Chemical causes
D. Mental Illness


Correct Answer: B. Nutritional deficiency 


192. The natural heat energy trapped underground is:

A. Geothermal energy
B. Electric energy
C. Thermal energy
D. Solar energy


Correct Answer: A. Geothermal energy 


193. Which of the following is the lowest level of biological organization with respect to others?

A. Multicellular organisms
B. Species
C. Biosphere
D. Population


Correct Answer: A. Multicellular organisms 


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