Note: MDCAT Solved Past Papers MCQs Set-1 comprises 190+ important Physics, Biology, Chemistry, and English MCQs. These MCQs are taken from different Past Papers and are helpful in MDCAT, ETEA, and different Medical related posts.
Physics
1. Which one is the highest power multiple?
A. Giga
B. Mega
C. Tera
D. Deca
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Tera
2. SI unit of charge is ___.
A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Calorie
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Ampere
3. The electrical analog of mass is electricity is ____?
A. Capacitance
B. Charge
C. Inductance
D. Resistance
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Charge
4. Which one of the following relations is correct?
A. 1 wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
B. 1 wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
C. 1 Tesla = 104 Gausses
D. All of these
Answer
Correct Answer: D. All of these
5. Life time of electron in metastable state is about ____.
A. 10-5 sec
B. 10-8 sec
C. 10-3 sec
D. 10-2 sec
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 10-8 sec
6. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by___.
A. τ = NIAB cos α
B. τ = NIAB sin α
C. τ = BIL sin α
D. τ = BIL cos α
Answer
Correct Answer: A. τ = NIAB cos α
7. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope ____.
A. Controls number of waves
B. Accelerates electrons
C. Controls the brightness of spot formed
D. Has positive potential with respect to cathode
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Controls the brightness of spot formed
8. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:
A. The angle of projection
B. The mass of the projectile
C. The initial velocity of projection
D. Speed and mass of the projectile
Answer
Correct Answer: A. The angle of projection
9. If velocity is double, then:
A. Momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
B. Momentum and K.E remain same
C. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times
10. The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:
A. 20 J
B. 30 J
C. 120 J
D. 0.02 J
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 120 J
11. In transistors, the base region is very thin, of the order of:
A. 10-5 cm
B. 10-6 mm
C. 10-6 m
D. 10-6 μm
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 10-6 m
12. The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on:
A. Internal structure of OP-AMP
B. Voltage of power supplies
C. Externally connected resistances = right
D. Input resistance
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Externally connected resistances
13. The net charge on an N-type substance is:
A. 0.7 volts
B. 0.25 volts
C. 0.3 volts
D. 0.07 volts
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 0.7 volts
14. The value of Wien’s constant is:
A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK
B. 4.22 x 10-7 mK
C. 3.34 x 10-4 mK
D. 3.42 x 10-8 mK
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK
15. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:
A. High frequency
B. Threshold frequency
C. Low frequency
D. Resonance frequency
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Low frequency
16. In pair production, the type of photon used:
A. α-particle
B. X-rays
C. β-particle
D. γ-radiations
Answer
Correct Answer: D. γ-radiations
17. The lifetime of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?
A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
B. 1.15 x 1010 J
C. 1.05 x 10-26 J
D. 2.19 x 10-40 J
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1.05 x 10-26 J
18. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:
A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
B. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
C. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec
19. LASER is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?
A. Radioactive
B. Ionization
C. Fission
D. Fusion
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Fusion
20. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by?
A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt
B. ΔN ∝ -nΔt
C. ΔN = KNΔt
D. ΔN = -ΔNΔt
Answer
Correct Answer: A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt
21. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as?
A. ΔN/NΔt
B. – NΔt
C. – ΔNΔt
D. ΔN/NΔt
Answer
Correct Answer: A. ΔN/NΔ
22. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to?
A. kJ / mol
B. kg / J
C. J / mol
D. J / kg
Answer
Correct Answer: D. J / kg
23. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines?
A. Only variable in the equation
B. Correctness of an equation
C. Only constant in the equation
D. Constant and variable in the equation
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Correctness of an equation
24. For a body to be in complete equilibrium?
A. Linear acceleration is zero
B. Angular acceleration is zero
C. Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero
25. If the length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is?
A. Zero
B. Fl sin θ
C. Ff
D. Fl sin θλ
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Zero
26. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y
components will be:
A. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
C. Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
D. Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
27. The difference between a vector B and its negative vector –B is:
A. A null vector
B. Twice the magnitude of the vector
C. Equal to the magnitude of the vector
D. Smaller than the magnitude of the vector
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Twice the magnitude of vector
28. Time of projectile’s flight is:
A. vi2 sin2 θg
B. C) vi2 sin θg
C. 2vi sin θg
D. i̇ 2gsin 2θ
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2vi sin θg
29. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:
A. variable acceleration
B. uniform velocity
C. uniform acceleration
D. negative acceleration
Answer
Correct Answer: C. uniform acceleration
30. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:
A. aS = vf – vi̇ 2
B. 2S = avf2 – vi̇ 2
C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2
D. aS = 2vf2 – vi̇ 2
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2
31. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be:
A. 24 sec
B. 12 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 8 sec
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2 sec
32. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?
A. Electric force
B. Gravitational force
C. Elastic spring force
D. Frictional force
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Frictional force
33. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is:
A. 11 km/sec
B. 2.4 km/sec
C. 10.4 km/sec
D. 4.3 km/sec
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 2.4 km/sec
34. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:
A. kWm-2
B. 1.0 Wm-2
C. 1.4 kWm-2
D. 1.4 Wm-2
Answer
Correct Answer: A. kWm-2
35. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:
A. Equal to its real weight
B. Zero
C. Less than its real weight
D. Greater than its real weight
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Greater than its real weight
36. The moment of inertial of a thin rod is:
A. 1/2 mL2
B. 1/12mL
C. 1/4 m3L
D. 1/12mL2
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1/12mL2
37. A wheel of radius 1 m covers an angular displacement of 180. Its linear displacement is:
A. 3.14 m
B. 6.28 m
C. π rad
D. 0.157 m
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 3.14 m
38. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Equation of motion
C. Venturi meter
D. Equation of continuity
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Equation of continuity
39. The blood vessels collapse when?
A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
B. External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
C. External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
D. External pressure applied is zero
Answer
Correct Answer: A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
40. An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at?
A. Extreme position
B. Between extreme and mean position
C. Mean position
D. Beyond extreme position
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Extreme position
41. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:
A. g cos θ
B. mg cos θ
C. mg sin θ
D. mg
Answer
Correct Answer: B. mg cos θ
42. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is?
A. Zero amplitude
B. Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
C. The sum of amplitude of the two waves
D. Double the amplitude of either wave
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Zero amplitude
43. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is?
A. 244 Hz
B. 248 Hz
C. 236 Hz
D. 246 Hz
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 244 Hz
44. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is?
A. 25 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 75 cm
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 100 cm
45. In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is?
A. λ/4
B. λ
C. λ/2
D. λ/3
Answer
Correct Answer: C. λ/2
46. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is?
A. (m + ½) λ
B. d sin θ
C. mλ
D. 3λ
Answer
Correct Answer: A. (m + ½) λ
47. In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as?
A. λ / Δλ
B. λ / λ1
C. λ / D
D. N x m
Answer
Correct Answer: A. λ / Δλ
48. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?
A. Visible light
B. Ordinary light
C. Ultraviolet light
D. Invisible infrared light
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Invisible infrared light
49. The value of universal gas constant is:
A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1
B. 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
C. 8.324 Jmol-1K-1
D. 1.00 Jmol-1K-1
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1
50. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 70%
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 50%
51. Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?
A. Molecules do not exert force on each other
B. The size of molecules is much larger than separation between the molecules
C. A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
D. The gas molecules are not in random motion
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Molecules do not exert force on each other
52. Which one is not an irreversible process?
A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
B. Explosion
C. Changes due to friction
D. Dissipation of energy
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
53. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is?
A. Perpendicular to the direction of field
B. At a certain angle
C. Opposite to the direction of force
D. Along the direction of force
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Along the direction of force
54. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the
Relation?
A. ΔV = Ed
B. ΔV =Eqo
C. ΔV = E/d
D. E =dΔV
Answer
Correct Answer: A. ΔV = Ed
55. SI unit of electric flux is?
A. NmC-1
B. Nm2C-2
C. Nm-2C-2
D. Nm2C-2
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Nm2C-2
56. The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is:
A. Electronic current
B. Magnetic lines
C. Electric current
D. Conventional current
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Conventional current
57. If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit time is:
A. VI V2R
B. I2R
C. Both a & b
D. All of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
58. The substances like germanium and silicon have:
A. Negative temperature coefficients
B. Both A and B
C. Positive temperature coefficients
D. None of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Negative temperature coefficients
59. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by?
A. Increasing magnetic field
B. Increasing BAN Ration
C. Increasing number of turns of the coil
D. Decreasing length of couple ‘c’
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Increasing BAN Ration
60. Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:
A. F = NIA cos α
B. F = ILB sin α
C. F = μnI
D. F = ILA cos α
Answer
Correct Answer: B. F = ILB sin α
CHEMISTRY
61. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:
A. pH scale
B. Hydrogen Scale
C. pOH scale
D. pKa scale
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Hydrogen Scale
62. The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the Voltaic cell is:
A. Hydrolysis reaction
B. Redox reaction
C. Oxidation reaction
D. Reduction reaction
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Redox reaction
63. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme ___ present in yeast.
A. Urease
B. Sucrase
C. Invertase
D. Zymase
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Zymase
64. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by ___ method.
A. Dilatometric
B. Optical rotation
C. Refractometric
D. Electrical conductivity
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Electrical conductivity
65. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions is dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:
A. -1891 kJmol-1
B. -499 kJmol-1
C. -1075 kJmol-1
D. -1562 kJmol-1
Answer
Correct Answer: C. -1075 kJmol-1
66. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is?
A. Electron affinity
B. Ionization energy
C. Lattice energy
D. Crystal energy
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Ionization energy
67. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?
A. Li2CO3
B. K2CO3
C. Mg2CO3
D. Na2CO3
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Li2CO3
68. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?
A. Leaves
B. Root hairs
C. Fruits
D. Branches
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Root hairs
69. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?
A. Sodium Sulphate
B. Potassium Sulphate
C. Barium Sulphate
D. Zinc Sulphate
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Barium Sulphate
70. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is?
A. A gradual increase
B. First decrease then increase
C. A gradual decrease
D. First increase then decrease
Answer
Correct Answer: A. A gradual increase
71. White lead has one of the following properties?
A. Acidic
B. Amorphous
C. Crystalline
D. Neutral
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Amorphous
72. The strongest acid among the following is:
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HI
D. HBr
Answer
Correct Answer: C. HI
73. The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is:
A. Radon
B. Krypton
C. Xenon
D. Argon
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Radon
74. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence of:
A. Unpaired electrons
B. Protons
C. Paired electrons
D. Neutrons
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Unpaired electrons
75. The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of ____ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom?
A. Hybridization
B. Deprotonation
C. Protonation
D. Dissociation
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Hybridization
76. KMnO4 acts as a:
A. Reducing agent
B. Germicide
C. Excellent precipitating reagent
D. Oxidizing agent
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Oxidizing agent
77. A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:
A. Oxidative cleavage
B. Catalytic cracking
C. Thermal cracking
D. Steam cracking
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Catalytic cracking
78. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by:
A. sp-s overlap
B. 2py-2py overlap
C. sp3-sp3 overlap
D. sp-sp overlap
Answer
Correct Answer: D. sp-sp overlap
79. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:
A. Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
B. Reduction Reaction
C. Hydrogenolysis Reaction
D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction
80. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:
A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl
B. Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
C. Al2O3 and NH4Cl
D. Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl
81. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:
A. Alkyl group
B. Benzyl group
C. Phenyl group
D. Methyl group
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Phenyl group
82. The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of ____ at 50 °C-55 °C.
A. Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
B. Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
C. Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4
83. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:
A. Gets inverted
B. Depends upon the carbon atom
C. Remains same
D. Depends upon the electronegativity of halide
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Gets inverted
84. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:
A. Dry Ether
B. Alcohol
C. Sodium Lead Alloy
D. Water
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Dry Ether
85. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:
A. ZnO + CoO2
B. ZnO + Ag2O
C. ZnO + CuO
D. Cr2O3 + ZnO
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Cr2O3 + ZnO
86. Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is:
A. ZnCl2
B. C6H5N
C. ThO2
D. Cr2O3
Answer
Correct Answer: C. ThO2
87. Dissociation constant of phenol is:
A. 1. 2 x 10-10
B. 1.3 x 1010
C. 1.2 x 1010
D. 1.3 x 10-10
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1.3 x 10-10
88. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:
A. Formaldehyde
B. Calcium acetate
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Sodium acetate
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Acetaldehyde
89. Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into:
A. Carboxylic Acid
B. Cyanohydride
C. Acid Amide
D. Formaldehyde
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Carboxylic Acid
90. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:
A. Sodium borohydride
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Sodium bisulphite
D. Fehling’s solution
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Fehling’s solution
91. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:
A. Neutral
B. Amphoteric
C. Acidic
D. Basic
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Basic
92. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?
A. H3C-COO-C2H5
B. H3C2-CO-OH
C. H3C2-COO-CH3
D. H3C2-COO-C2H5
Answer
Correct Answer: B. H3C2-CO-OH
93. Collagen and albumin are:
A. Simple proteins
B. Polyamides
C. Derived proteins
D. Polysaccharides
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Simple proteins
94. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:
A. CO2
B. CaO
C. CO
D. C
Answer
Correct Answer: A. CO2
95. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:
A. Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O
C. 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
D. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O
96. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:
A. Caustic soda
B. Alum
C. Lime water
D. Soda ash
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Alum
97. The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Super oxides
C. Per oxides
D. Normal oxides
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Per oxides
98. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of?
A. 20.414 dm3
B. 22.414 cm3
C. 22.414 dm3
D. 23.414 dm3
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 22.414 dm3
99. The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:
A. Mass Spectrometry
B. Chromatography
C. X-rays
D. Solvent Extraction
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Mass Spectrometry
100. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called:
A. Mass-mass relationship
B. Mole-volume relationship
C. Mass-mole relationship
D. Mass-volume relationship
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Mass-volume relationship
101. Sublimation is used to purify:
A. Ammonium sulphate
B. Benzoic acid
C. Sodium chloride
D. Lead carbonate
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Benzoic acid
102. The purity of a substance can be identified by?
A. Sublimation
B. Chromatography
C. Filtration
D. Solvent extraction
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Chromatography
103. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?
A. V= RnTP (when ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
B. V= RPnT (when ‘P’ and ‘n’ are constant)
C. V= RnT P (when ‘P’, ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)
Answer
Correct Answer: D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)
104. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:
A. Molar mass
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Molar mass
105. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of?
A. Ions and electrons
B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms
C. Electrons and neutral atoms
D. Ions and neutral atoms
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms
106. Which type of force is present in gasoline?
A. Dipole-dipole forces
B. London dispersion forces
C. Dipole-induced dipole forces
D. hydrogen bonding
Answer
Correct Answer: B. London dispersion forces
107. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by ___ Cl- ions.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Eight
D. Six
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Six
108. The charge of one gram of electron is:
A. 1.7588 x 10-11
B. 1.602 x 10-19
C. 1.7588 x 1011
D. 1.7588 x 108
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 1.7588 x 108
109. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is:
A. Zero
B. 1313.31 kJmol-1
C. 13.13 kJmol-1
D. 1313.31 k2Jmol
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1313.31 kJmol-1
110. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?
A. Principal Quantum Number
B. Magnetic Quantum Number
C. Spin Quantum Number
D. Azimuthal Quantum Number
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Magnetic Quantum Number
111. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:
A. 314 pm
B. 95 pm
C. 181 pm
D. 300 pm
Answer
Corrrect Answer: A. 314 pm
112. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:
A. One σ and two π
B. Three σ only
C. One σ and one π
D. Two σ and one π
Answer
Correct Answer: A. One σ and two π
113. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
A. NH3
B. BF3
C. CHCl3
D. H2O
Answer
Correct Answer: B. BF3
114. A spontaneous process is:
A. Unidirectional and irreversible
B. Unidirectional and a real process
C. Irreversible and a real process
D. All of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
115. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is __ kJmol-1.
A. +16.2
B. +4.98
C. -25.0
D. +26.0
Answer
Correct Answer: A. +16.2
116. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)
A. mol3dm-6
B. mol-3dm6
C. moldm-3
D. No unit
Answer
Correct Answer: D. No unit
117. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution, the percentage ionization of acetic acid will be?
A. 13
B. 1.3
C. 15
D. 0.1
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1.3
118. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 is:
A. Increases with temperature
B. Shows exceptional behavior
C. Decreases with temperature
D. Remains constant
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Shows exceptional behavior
119. Seawater has 5.65 x 10-3 g of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of O2 in parts per million is:
A. 5.65
B. 5.20
C. 7.69
D. 4.11
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 5.65
120. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their ___ throughout the metallic lattice?
A. Atoms
B. Electrons
C. Molecules
D. Ions
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Electrons
ENGLISH
121. My advice had no __ on him.
A. Effect
B. Influence
C. Affect
D. Impression
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Effect
122. Do not lose heart, it is just a __ in the tea cup.
A. Wind
B. Blast
C. Cyclone
D. Storm
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Storm
123. Pakistan ____ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.
A. Prevented
B. Abstained
C. Detained
D. Refused
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Abstained
124. Please ____ the door after you.
A. Close
B. Leave
C. Shut
D. Knock
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Shut
In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
125.
A. This is different to what had been expected.
B. This is different from what had been expected.
C. This is different what had been expected.
D. This is different to what would be expected.
Answer
Correct Answer: B. This is different from what had been expected.
126.
A. He suddenly remembered that he has left his house unlocked.
B. He suddenly remembered that he may have left his house unlocked.
C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked.
D. He suddenly remembered that he will have left his house unlocked.
Answer
Correct Answer: C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked.
127.
A. He asked us would we care to go.
B. He asked us we would care to go.
C. He asked us if we would care to go.
D. He asked us we will care to go.
”Answer”
128.
A. When this war is over, no nation will either be isolated in war or peace.
B. When this war is over, no nation will be either isolated in war or peace.
C. When this war is over, no nation will neither be isolated in war nor peace.
D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.
Answer
Correct Answer: D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.
129.
A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.
D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him.
Answer
Correct Answer: B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
130.
A. He said there has been no need to do it.
B. He said there had been not any need doing it.
C. He said there wasn’t no need to do it.
D. He said there was no need to do it.
Answer
Correct Answer: D. He said there was no need to do it.
131.
A. I could barely make of the traffic sings through the rain.
B. I could barely make out the traffic signs because of the rain.
C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.
D. I could barely make with the traffic signs through the rain.
Answer
Correct Answer: C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.
132.
A. He walked as though he is lame.
B. He walked as though he were lame.
C. He walked as though he was lame.
D. He walked as though he may have been lame.
Answer
Correct Answer: B. He walked as though he were lame.
133.
A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
B. E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.
C. E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
D. E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.
Answer
Correct Answer: A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
134.
A. The remain of the body was thrown into the sea.
B. The remains of the body were thrown to the sea.
C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.
D. The remains of the body was thrown into the sea.
Answer
Correct Answer: C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.
In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
135. WALLOW
A. Roll about
B. Protest
C. Mock
D. Borrow
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Roll about
136. CONNOISSEUR
A. Guide
B. Expert critic of art
C. Artist
D. Teacher
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Expert critic of art
137. ECCENTRIC
A. Lunatic
B. Upset
C. Stern
D. Odd
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Odd
138. BOULDER
A. Rounded stone / Hill
B. Magnanimity
C. Builder
D. Magnitude
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Rounded stone / Hill
139. SLUMBER
A. Heap
B. Knee
C. Humble
D. Sleep
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Sleep
140. EXCREMENT
A. Increment
B. Excitement
C. Waste matter expelled from body
D. Disagreement
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Waste matter expelled from body
141. VISAGE
A. Vision
B. Trunk less
C. Illusion
D. A person’s face
Answer
Correct Answer: D. A person’s face
142. FELICITY
A. Intense Happiness
B. Inspire
C. Respite
D. Sensational
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Intense Happiness
143. ENMESHED
A. Sojourn
B. Gallows
C. Entangled
D. Cascade
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Entangled
144. CAPTIVATE
A. Hesitate
B. Hate
C. Concentrate
D. Fascinate
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Fascinate
BIOLOGY
145. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:
A. Crustacea
B. Myriapoda
C. Insecta
D. Arachnida
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Arachnida
146. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?
A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Nematoda
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Echinodermata
147. Type of respiration which involves step by step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called:
A. External respiration
B. Pulmonary respiration
C. Cellular respiration
D. Cutaneous respiration
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Cutaneous respiration
148. An instrument that is used to measure the relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called:
A. Spectrometer
B. Barometer
C. Photometer
D. Spectrophotometer
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Photometer
149. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation, and anaerobic respiration are:
A. Citric acid, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
C. Ethyl alcohol, citric acid and carbon dioxide
D. Methanol, lactic acid and citric acid
Answers
Correct Answer: B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
150. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?
A. Digestion of triglycerides
B. Digestion of all types of food
C. Digestion of lipids
D. Digestion of carbohydrates
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Digestion of carbohydrates
151. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?
A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine
C. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine
Answer
Correct Answer: B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine
152. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is?
A. Obesity
B. Dyspepsia
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Bulimia nervosa
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Anorexia nervosa
153. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?
A. Air sac
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Bronchioles
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Air sac
154. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. pH
C. Temperature
D. Light
Answer
Correct Answer: B. pH
155. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:
A. Contraction of lungs
B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles
C. Contraction of intercostal membrane
D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles
156. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?
A. Glycerol
B. Amino acids
C. Sterol D)
D. Cholesterol
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Cholesterol
157. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:
A. Lymph nodes
B. Tonsils
C. Red bone marrow
D. Spleen
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Red bone marrow
158. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?
A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.
B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
D. It is present at upper end of left atrium.
Answer
Correct Answer: A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.
159. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:
A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves
D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves
160. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Creatine
D. Creatinine
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Uric acid
161. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:
A. Liver
B. Nephron
C. Kidney
D. Glomerulus
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Liver
162. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:
A. Striated muscles
B. Sphincter muscles
C. Smooth muscles
D. Circular muscles
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Sphincter muscles
163. The living cells of cartilage are called:
A. Chrondrocytes
B. Ostecytes
C. Osteoblasts
D. Osteoclasts
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Chrondrocytes
164. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:
A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
B. Arthritis
C. Disc slip
D. Spondylosis
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Spondylosis
165. During muscle contraction
A. I-band shortens
B. Actin filaments shorten
C. Myosin filaments shorten
D. Z-line disappears
Answer
Correct Answer: A. I-band shortens
166. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?
A. They initiate new biochemical reactions
B. They may be proteins
C. They are poured directly into blood
D. They affect target cells
Answer
Correct Answer: A. They initiate new biochemical reactions
167. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviors respond to which combination /s:
A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
C. Aggression, mating and altruism
D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation.
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Aggression, mating and altruism
168. A typical neuron at rest:
A. Is more positive outside than inside
B. Has no charge on either side
C. Is more negative outside than inside
D. has an equal charge on either side
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Is more positive outside than inside
169. The first cells produced by the repeated cell division of germinal epithelium of testis are:
A. Interstitial cells
B. Secondary spermatocytes
C. Spermatogonia
D. Spermatids
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Spermatogonia
170. Which chromosomal abnormality in humans causes aggressive and antisocial behavior?
A. XO
B. XYY
C. XXY
D. XXX
Answer
Correct Answer: B. XYY
171. Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:
A. Muscle cells
B. Notochord and neural tube
C. Gut
D. Larval epidermis
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Notochord and neural tube
172. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?
A. Chromosomal rearrangement
B. Chromosomal aberration
C. Transposition of gene
D. Point mutation
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Point mutation
173. The karyotype of an individual is ____ of chromosomes.
A. Number
B. Number, types and chemical composition
C. Types
D. Number and types
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Number and types
174. The Process of replication of DNA begins at:
A. One place only without any specific sequence of DNA
B. One or more places without any specific sequence of DNA
C. Any place with the uncoiling of two strands of DNA
D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides
Answer
Correct Answer: D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides
175. Amino acid attaches at which site of RNA:
A. Anticodon site
B. 3’-site with terminal OH
C. Ribosomes recognition site
D. Activation enzyme recognition site
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 3’-site with terminal OH
176. Microtubules of spindle fibers are composed of a protein called:
A. Tubulin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Troponin
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Tubulin
177. The kinetochore fibers contract and spindle or pole fibers elongate during:
A. Prophase I
B. Telophase I
C. Metaphase I
D. Anaphase I
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Anaphase I
178. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Metastasis
D. Epistasis
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Necrosis
179. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:
A. X-linked
B. Y-linked
C. Autosomal
D. X and Y-linked
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Y-linked
180. Epistasis is a relationship between:
A. Alleles of a gene
B. Two contrasting traits
C. Two different genes at the same locus
D. Two different genes at different loci
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Two different genes at different loci
181. Gene for albinism in man is present on chromosome number:
A. 11
B. 21
C. 22
D. 12
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 11
182. Gene can be synthesized in the laboratory from messenger RNA by using:
A. Restriction enzymes
B. Vector
C. cDNA (complementary DNA)
D. Reverse transcriptase
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Reverse transcriptase
183. Antibiotic resistance genes for tetracycline and ampicillin are present in the plasmid:
A. pSC 101
B. pBR 322
C. pCR 101
D. pBR 233
Answer
Correct Answer: B. pBR 322
184. Cloning is a form of:
A. Sexual Reproduction
B. Vegetative Propagation
C. Asexual Reproduction
D. Genetic Recombination
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Vegetative Propagation
185. Group of interbreeding individuals of particular species, sharing common geographical area is called:
A. Population
B. Community
C. Community ecology
D. Autecology
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Population
186. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?
A. Haemoglobin
B. Cytochrome
C. Myoglobin
D. Pilin
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Cytochrome
187. Ozone filters ultraviolet radiations from the sun in the upper:
A. Biosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Atmosphere
D. Hydrosphere
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Atmosphere
188. A parasite living inside body of the host is called:
A. Ectoparasite
B. Facultative parasite
C. Obligate parasite
D. Endoparasite
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Endoparasite
189. An association between two organisms benefiting both is called:
A. Commensalism
B. Predation
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Symbiosis
190. In aquatic ecosystem, human activities may accelerate the process of:
A. Eutrophication
B. Decomposition
C. Photosynthesis
D. Recycling
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Eutrophication
191. Beri Beri is due to:
A. Metabolic disorder
B. Nutritional deficiency
C. Chemical causes
D. Mental Illness
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Nutritional deficiency
192. The natural heat energy trapped underground is:
A. Geothermal energy
B. Electric energy
C. Thermal energy
D. Solar energy
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Geothermal energy
193. Which of the following is the lowest level of biological organization with respect to others?
A. Multicellular organisms
B. Species
C. Biosphere
D. Population
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Multicellular organisms
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