Note: MDCAT Solved Past Papers MCQs Set-1 comprises 190+ important Physics, Biology, Chemistry, and English MCQs. These MCQs are taken from different Past Papers and are helpful in MDCAT, ETEA, and different Medical related posts.

Physics

1. Which one is the highest power multiple?

A. Giga
B. Mega
C. Tera
D. Deca

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Tera

 

2. SI unit of charge is ___.

A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Calorie

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ampere

 

3. The electrical analog of mass is electricity is ____?

A. Capacitance
B. Charge
C. Inductance
D. Resistance

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Charge

 

4. Which one of the following relations is correct?

A. 1 wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
B. 1 wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
C. 1 Tesla = 104 Gausses
D. All of these

Answer

Correct Answer: D. All of these

 

5. Life time of electron in metastable state is about ____.

A. 10-5 sec
B. 10-8 sec
C. 10-3 sec
D. 10-2 sec

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 10-8 sec

 

6. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by___.

A. τ = NIAB cos α
B. τ = NIAB sin α
C. τ = BIL sin α
D. τ = BIL cos α

Answer

Correct Answer: A. τ = NIAB cos α

 

7. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope ____.

A. Controls number of waves
B. Accelerates electrons
C. Controls the brightness of spot formed
D. Has positive potential with respect to cathode

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Controls the brightness of spot formed

 

8. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:

A. The angle of projection
B. The mass of the projectile
C. The initial velocity of projection
D. Speed and mass of the projectile

Answer

Correct Answer: A. The angle of projection

 

9. If velocity is double, then:

A. Momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
B. Momentum and K.E remain same
C. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times

 

10. The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:

A. 20 J
B. 30 J
C. 120 J
D. 0.02 J

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 120 J

 

11. In transistors, the base region is very thin, of the order of:

A. 10-5 cm
B. 10-6 mm
C. 10-6 m
D. 10-6 μm

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 10-6 m

 

12. The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on:

A. Internal structure of OP-AMP
B. Voltage of power supplies
C. Externally connected resistances = right
D. Input resistance

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Externally connected resistances

 

13. The net charge on an N-type substance is:

A. 0.7 volts
B. 0.25 volts
C. 0.3 volts
D. 0.07 volts

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 0.7 volts

 

14. The value of Wien’s constant is:

A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK
B. 4.22 x 10-7 mK
C. 3.34 x 10-4 mK
D. 3.42 x 10-8 mK

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK

 

15. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:

A. High frequency
B. Threshold frequency
C. Low frequency
D. Resonance frequency

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Low frequency

 

16. In pair production, the type of photon used:

A. α-particle
B. X-rays
C. β-particle
D. γ-radiations

Answer

Correct Answer: D. γ-radiations

 

17. The lifetime of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
B. 1.15 x 1010 J
C. 1.05 x 10-26 J
D. 2.19 x 10-40 J

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 1.05 x 10-26 J

 

18. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:

A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
B. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
C. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec

Answer

Correct Answer: D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec

 

19. LASER is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?

A. Radioactive
B. Ionization
C. Fission
D. Fusion

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Fusion

 

20. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by?

A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt
B. ΔN ∝ -nΔt
C. ΔN = KNΔt
D. ΔN = -ΔNΔt

Answer

Correct Answer: A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt

 

21. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as?

A. ΔN/NΔt
B. – NΔt
C. – ΔNΔt
D. ΔN/NΔt

Answer

Correct Answer: A. ΔN/NΔ

 

22. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to?

A. kJ / mol
B. kg / J
C. J / mol
D. J / kg

Answer

Correct Answer: D. J / kg

 

23. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines?

A. Only variable in the equation
B. Correctness of an equation
C. Only constant in the equation
D. Constant and variable in the equation

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Correctness of an equation

 

24. For a body to be in complete equilibrium?

A. Linear acceleration is zero
B. Angular acceleration is zero
C. Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero

 

25. If the length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is?

A. Zero
B. Fl sin θ
C. Ff
D. Fl sin θλ

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Zero

 

26. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y
components will be:

A. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4
C. Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
D. Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4

 

27. The difference between a vector B and its negative vector –B is:

A. A null vector
B. Twice the magnitude of the vector
C. Equal to the magnitude of the vector
D. Smaller than the magnitude of the vector

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Twice the magnitude of vector

 

28. Time of projectile’s flight is:

A. vi2 sin2 θg
B. C) vi2 sin θg
C. 2vi sin θg
D. i̇ 2gsin 2θ

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 2vi sin θg

 

29. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

A. variable acceleration
B. uniform velocity
C. uniform acceleration
D. negative acceleration

Answer

Correct Answer: C. uniform acceleration

 

30. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:

A. aS = vf – vi̇ 2
B. 2S = avf2 – vi̇ 2
C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2
D. aS = 2vf2 – vi̇ 2

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 2aS = vf2 – vi̇ 2

 

31. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be:

A. 24 sec
B. 12 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 8 sec

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 2 sec

 

32. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

A. Electric force
B. Gravitational force
C. Elastic spring force
D. Frictional force

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Frictional force

 

33. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is:

A. 11 km/sec
B. 2.4 km/sec
C. 10.4 km/sec
D. 4.3 km/sec

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 2.4 km/sec

 

34. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:

A. kWm-2
B. 1.0 Wm-2
C. 1.4 kWm-2
D. 1.4 Wm-2

Answer

Correct Answer: A. kWm-2

 

35. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:

A. Equal to its real weight
B. Zero
C. Less than its real weight
D. Greater than its real weight

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Greater than its real weight

 

36. The moment of inertial of a thin rod is:

A. 1/2 mL2
B. 1/12mL
C. 1/4 m3L
D. 1/12mL2

Answer

Correct Answer: D. 1/12mL2

 

37. A wheel of radius 1 m covers an angular displacement of 180. Its linear displacement is:

A. 3.14 m
B. 6.28 m
C. π rad
D. 0.157 m

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 3.14 m

 

38. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:

A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Equation of motion
C. Venturi meter
D. Equation of continuity

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Equation of continuity

 

39. The blood vessels collapse when?

A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure
B. External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
C. External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
D. External pressure applied is zero

Answer

Correct Answer: A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure

 

40. An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at?

A. Extreme position
B. Between extreme and mean position
C. Mean position
D. Beyond extreme position

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Extreme position

 

41. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:

A. g cos θ
B. mg cos θ
C. mg sin θ
D. mg

Answer

Correct Answer: B. mg cos θ

 

42. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is?

A. Zero amplitude
B. Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
C. The sum of amplitude of the two waves
D. Double the amplitude of either wave

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Zero amplitude

 

43. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is?

A. 244 Hz
B. 248 Hz
C. 236 Hz
D. 246 Hz

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 244 Hz

 

44. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is?

A. 25 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 75 cm

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 100 cm

 

45. In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is?

A. λ/4
B. λ
C. λ/2
D. λ/3

Answer

Correct Answer: C. λ/2

 

46. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is?

A. (m + ½) λ
B. d sin θ
C. mλ
D. 3λ

Answer

Correct Answer: A. (m + ½) λ

 

47. In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as?

A. λ / Δλ
B. λ / λ1
C. λ / D
D. N x m

Answer

Correct Answer: A. λ / Δλ

 

48. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

A. Visible light
B. Ordinary light
C. Ultraviolet light
D. Invisible infrared light

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Invisible infrared light

 

49. The value of universal gas constant is:

A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1
B. 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
C. 8.324 Jmol-1K-1
D. 1.00 Jmol-1K-1

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1

 

50. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 70%

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 50%

 

51. Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?

A. Molecules do not exert force on each other
B. The size of molecules is much larger than separation between the molecules
C. A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
D. The gas molecules are not in random motion

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Molecules do not exert force on each other

 

52. Which one is not an irreversible process?

A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder
B. Explosion
C. Changes due to friction
D. Dissipation of energy

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder

 

53. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is?

A. Perpendicular to the direction of field
B. At a certain angle
C. Opposite to the direction of force
D. Along the direction of force

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Along the direction of force

 

54. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the
Relation?

A. ΔV = Ed
B. ΔV =Eqo
C. ΔV = E/d
D. E =dΔV

Answer

Correct Answer: A. ΔV = Ed

 

55. SI unit of electric flux is?

A. NmC-1
B. Nm2C-2
C. Nm-2C-2
D. Nm2C-2

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Nm2C-2

 

56. The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is:

A. Electronic current
B. Magnetic lines
C. Electric current
D. Conventional current

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Conventional current

 

57. If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit time is:

A. VI V2R
B. I2R
C. Both a & b
D. All of the above

Answer

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

 

58. The substances like germanium and silicon have:

A. Negative temperature coefficients
B. Both A and B
C. Positive temperature coefficients
D. None of the above

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Negative temperature coefficients

 

59. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by?

A. Increasing magnetic field
B. Increasing BAN Ration
C. Increasing number of turns of the coil
D. Decreasing length of couple ‘c’

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Increasing BAN Ration

 

60. Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:

A. F = NIA cos α
B. F = ILB sin α
C. F = μnI
D. F = ILA cos α

Answer

Correct Answer: B. F = ILB sin α

 

CHEMISTRY

61. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

A. pH scale
B. Hydrogen Scale
C. pOH scale
D. pKa scale

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Hydrogen Scale

 

62. The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the Voltaic cell is:

A. Hydrolysis reaction
B. Redox reaction
C. Oxidation reaction
D. Reduction reaction

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Redox reaction

 

63. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme ___ present in yeast.

A. Urease
B. Sucrase
C. Invertase
D. Zymase

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Zymase

 

64. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by ___ method.

A. Dilatometric
B. Optical rotation
C. Refractometric
D. Electrical conductivity

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Electrical conductivity

 

65. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions is dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:

A. -1891 kJmol-1
B. -499 kJmol-1
C. -1075 kJmol-1
D. -1562 kJmol-1

Answer

Correct Answer: C. -1075 kJmol-1

 

66. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is?

A. Electron affinity
B. Ionization energy
C. Lattice energy
D. Crystal energy

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Ionization energy

 

67. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?

A. Li2CO3
B. K2CO3
C. Mg2CO3
D. Na2CO3

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Li2CO3

 

68. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

A. Leaves
B. Root hairs
C. Fruits
D. Branches

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Root hairs

 

69. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

A. Sodium Sulphate
B. Potassium Sulphate
C. Barium Sulphate
D. Zinc Sulphate

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Barium Sulphate

 

70. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is?

A. A gradual increase
B. First decrease then increase
C. A gradual decrease
D. First increase then decrease

Answer

Correct Answer: A. A gradual increase

 

71. White lead has one of the following properties?

A. Acidic
B. Amorphous
C. Crystalline
D. Neutral

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Amorphous

 

72. The strongest acid among the following is:

A. HF
B. HCl
C. HI
D. HBr

Answer

Correct Answer: C. HI

 

73. The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is:

A. Radon
B. Krypton
C. Xenon
D. Argon

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Radon

 

74. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence of:

A. Unpaired electrons
B. Protons
C. Paired electrons
D. Neutrons

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Unpaired electrons

 

75. The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of ____ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom?

A. Hybridization
B. Deprotonation
C. Protonation
D. Dissociation

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Hybridization

 

76. KMnO4 acts as a:

A. Reducing agent
B. Germicide
C. Excellent precipitating reagent
D. Oxidizing agent

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Oxidizing agent

 

77. A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:

A. Oxidative cleavage
B. Catalytic cracking
C. Thermal cracking
D. Steam cracking

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Catalytic cracking

 

78. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by:

A. sp-s overlap
B. 2py-2py overlap
C. sp3-sp3 overlap
D. sp-sp overlap

Answer

Correct Answer: D. sp-sp overlap

 

79. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

A. Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
B. Reduction Reaction
C. Hydrogenolysis Reaction
D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction

 

80. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:

A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl
B. Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
C. Al2O3 and NH4Cl
D. Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl

 

81. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

A. Alkyl group
B. Benzyl group
C. Phenyl group
D. Methyl group

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Phenyl group

 

82. The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of ____ at 50 °C-55 °C.

A. Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
B. Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
C. Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4

 

83. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

A. Gets inverted
B. Depends upon the carbon atom
C. Remains same
D. Depends upon the electronegativity of halide

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Gets inverted

 

84. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

A. Dry Ether
B. Alcohol
C. Sodium Lead Alloy
D. Water

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Dry Ether

 

85. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:

A. ZnO + CoO2
B. ZnO + Ag2O
C. ZnO + CuO
D. Cr2O3 + ZnO

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Cr2O3 + ZnO

 

86. Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is:

A. ZnCl2
B. C6H5N
C. ThO2
D. Cr2O3

Answer

Correct Answer: C. ThO2

 

87. Dissociation constant of phenol is:

A. 1. 2 x 10-10
B. 1.3 x 1010
C. 1.2 x 1010
D. 1.3 x 10-10

Answer

Correct Answer: D. 1.3 x 10-10

 

88. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:

A. Formaldehyde
B. Calcium acetate
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Sodium acetate

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Acetaldehyde

 

89. Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into:

A. Carboxylic Acid
B. Cyanohydride
C. Acid Amide
D. Formaldehyde

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Carboxylic Acid

 

90. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

A. Sodium borohydride
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Sodium bisulphite
D. Fehling’s solution

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Fehling’s solution

 

91. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:

A. Neutral
B. Amphoteric
C. Acidic
D. Basic

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Basic

 

92. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

A. H3C-COO-C2H5
B. H3C2-CO-OH
C. H3C2-COO-CH3
D. H3C2-COO-C2H5

Answer

Correct Answer: B. H3C2-CO-OH

 

93. Collagen and albumin are:

A. Simple proteins
B. Polyamides
C. Derived proteins
D. Polysaccharides

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Simple proteins

 

94. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:

A. CO2
B. CaO
C. CO
D. C

Answer

Correct Answer: A. CO2

 

95. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:

A. Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O
C. 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
D. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O

 

96. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

A. Caustic soda
B. Alum
C. Lime water
D. Soda ash

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Alum

 

97. The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Super oxides
C. Per oxides
D. Normal oxides

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Per oxides

 

98. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of?

A. 20.414 dm3
B. 22.414 cm3
C. 22.414 dm3
D. 23.414 dm3

Answer

Correct Answer: C. 22.414 dm3

 

99. The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:

A. Mass Spectrometry
B. Chromatography
C. X-rays
D. Solvent Extraction

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Mass Spectrometry

 

100. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called:

A. Mass-mass relationship
B. Mole-volume relationship
C. Mass-mole relationship
D. Mass-volume relationship

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Mass-volume relationship

 

101. Sublimation is used to purify:

A. Ammonium sulphate
B. Benzoic acid
C. Sodium chloride
D. Lead carbonate

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Benzoic acid

 

102. The purity of a substance can be identified by?

A. Sublimation
B. Chromatography
C. Filtration
D. Solvent extraction

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Chromatography

 

103. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?

A. V= RnTP (when ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
B. V= RPnT (when ‘P’ and ‘n’ are constant)
C. V= RnT P (when ‘P’, ‘T’ and ‘n’ are constant)
D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)

Answer

Correct Answer: D. V= R nTP (when ‘P’ and ‘T’ are constant)

 

104. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

A. Molar mass
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Molar mass

 

105. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of?

A. Ions and electrons
B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms
C. Electrons and neutral atoms
D. Ions and neutral atoms

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms

 

106. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

A. Dipole-dipole forces
B. London dispersion forces
C. Dipole-induced dipole forces
D. hydrogen bonding

Answer

Correct Answer: B. London dispersion forces

 

107. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by ___ Cl- ions.

A. Four
B. Five
C. Eight
D. Six

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Six

 

108. The charge of one gram of electron is:

A. 1.7588 x 10-11
B. 1.602 x 10-19
C. 1.7588 x 1011
D. 1.7588 x 108

Answer

Correct Answer: D. 1.7588 x 108

 

109. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is:

A. Zero
B. 1313.31 kJmol-1
C. 13.13 kJmol-1
D. 1313.31 k2Jmol

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1313.31 kJmol-1

 

110. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

A. Principal Quantum Number
B. Magnetic Quantum Number
C. Spin Quantum Number
D. Azimuthal Quantum Number

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Magnetic Quantum Number

 

111. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:

A. 314 pm
B. 95 pm
C. 181 pm
D. 300 pm

Answer

Corrrect Answer: A. 314 pm

 

112. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:

A. One σ and two π
B. Three σ only
C. One σ and one π
D. Two σ and one π

Answer

Correct Answer: A. One σ and two π

 

113. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

A. NH3
B. BF3
C. CHCl3
D. H2O

Answer

Correct Answer: B. BF3

 

114. A spontaneous process is:

A. Unidirectional and irreversible
B. Unidirectional and a real process
C. Irreversible and a real process
D. All of the above

Answer

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

 

115. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is __ kJmol-1.

A. +16.2
B. +4.98
C. -25.0
D. +26.0

Answer

Correct Answer: A. +16.2

 

116. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)

A. mol3dm-6
B. mol-3dm6
C. moldm-3
D. No unit

Answer

Correct Answer: D. No unit

 

117. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution, the percentage ionization of acetic acid will be?

A. 13
B. 1.3
C. 15
D. 0.1

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 1.3

 

118. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 is:

A. Increases with temperature
B. Shows exceptional behavior
C. Decreases with temperature
D. Remains constant

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Shows exceptional behavior

 

119. Seawater has 5.65 x 10-3 g of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of O2 in parts per million is:

A. 5.65
B. 5.20
C. 7.69
D. 4.11

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 5.65

 

120. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their ___ throughout the metallic lattice?

A. Atoms
B. Electrons
C. Molecules
D. Ions

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Electrons

 

ENGLISH

121. My advice had no __ on him.

A. Effect
B. Influence
C. Affect
D. Impression

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Effect

 

122. Do not lose heart, it is just a __ in the tea cup.

A. Wind
B. Blast
C. Cyclone
D. Storm

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Storm

 

123. Pakistan ____ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

A. Prevented
B. Abstained
C. Detained
D. Refused

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Abstained

 

124. Please ____ the door after you.

A. Close
B. Leave
C. Shut
D. Knock

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Shut

 

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

125.

A. This is different to what had been expected.
B. This is different from what had been expected.
C. This is different what had been expected.
D. This is different to what would be expected.

Answer

Correct Answer: B. This is different from what had been expected.

 

126.

A. He suddenly remembered that he has left his house unlocked.
B. He suddenly remembered that he may have left his house unlocked.
C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked.
D. He suddenly remembered that he will have left his house unlocked.

Answer

Correct Answer: C. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked. 

 

127.

A. He asked us would we care to go.
B. He asked us we would care to go.
C. He asked us if we would care to go.
D. He asked us we will care to go.

”Answer”

 

128.

A. When this war is over, no nation will either be isolated in war or peace.
B. When this war is over, no nation will be either isolated in war or peace.
C. When this war is over, no nation will neither be isolated in war nor peace.
D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.

Answer

Correct Answer: D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or in peace.

 

129.

A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.
D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him.

Answer

Correct Answer: B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.

 

130.

A. He said there has been no need to do it.
B. He said there had been not any need doing it.
C. He said there wasn’t no need to do it.
D. He said there was no need to do it.

Answer

Correct Answer: D. He said there was no need to do it.

 

131.

A. I could barely make of the traffic sings through the rain.
B. I could barely make out the traffic signs because of the rain.
C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.
D. I could barely make with the traffic signs through the rain.

Answer

Correct Answer: C. I could barely make up the traffic sings through the rain.

 

132.

A. He walked as though he is lame.
B. He walked as though he were lame.
C. He walked as though he was lame.
D. He walked as though he may have been lame.

Answer

Correct Answer: B. He walked as though he were lame.

 

133.

A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
B. E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.
C. E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
D. E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.

Answer

Correct Answer: A. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.

 

134.

A. The remain of the body was thrown into the sea.
B. The remains of the body were thrown to the sea.
C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.
D. The remains of the body was thrown into the sea.

Answer

Correct Answer: C. The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.

 

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

135. WALLOW

A. Roll about
B. Protest
C. Mock
D. Borrow

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Roll about

 

136. CONNOISSEUR

A. Guide
B. Expert critic of art
C. Artist
D. Teacher

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Expert critic of art

 

137. ECCENTRIC

A. Lunatic
B. Upset
C. Stern
D. Odd

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Odd

 

138. BOULDER

A. Rounded stone / Hill
B. Magnanimity
C. Builder
D. Magnitude

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Rounded stone / Hill

 

139. SLUMBER

A. Heap
B. Knee
C. Humble
D. Sleep

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Sleep

 

140. EXCREMENT

A. Increment
B. Excitement
C. Waste matter expelled from body
D. Disagreement

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Waste matter expelled from body

 

141. VISAGE

A. Vision
B. Trunk less
C. Illusion
D. A person’s face

Answer

Correct Answer: D. A person’s face

 

142. FELICITY

A. Intense Happiness
B. Inspire
C. Respite
D. Sensational

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Intense Happiness

 

143. ENMESHED

A. Sojourn
B. Gallows
C. Entangled
D. Cascade

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Entangled

 

144. CAPTIVATE

A. Hesitate
B. Hate
C. Concentrate
D. Fascinate

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Fascinate

 

BIOLOGY

145. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:

A. Crustacea
B. Myriapoda
C. Insecta
D. Arachnida

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Arachnida

 

146. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?

A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Nematoda

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Echinodermata

 

147. Type of respiration which involves step by step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called:

A. External respiration
B. Pulmonary respiration
C. Cellular respiration
D. Cutaneous respiration

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Cutaneous respiration

 

148. An instrument that is used to measure the relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called:

A. Spectrometer
B. Barometer
C. Photometer
D. Spectrophotometer

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Photometer

 

149. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation, and anaerobic respiration are:

A. Citric acid, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
C. Ethyl alcohol, citric acid and carbon dioxide
D. Methanol, lactic acid and citric acid

Answers

Correct Answer: B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water

 

150. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?

A. Digestion of triglycerides
B. Digestion of all types of food
C. Digestion of lipids
D. Digestion of carbohydrates

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Digestion of carbohydrates

 

151. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?

A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine
C. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine

Answer

Correct Answer: B. At the junction of ileum and large intestine

 

152. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is?

A. Obesity
B. Dyspepsia
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Bulimia nervosa

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Anorexia nervosa

 

153. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?

A. Air sac
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Bronchioles

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Air sac 

 

154. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. pH
C. Temperature
D. Light

Answer

Correct Answer: B. pH

 

155. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:

A. Contraction of lungs
B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles
C. Contraction of intercostal membrane
D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles

 

156. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

A. Glycerol
B. Amino acids
C. Sterol D)
D. Cholesterol

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Cholesterol

 

157. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:

A. Lymph nodes
B. Tonsils
C. Red bone marrow
D. Spleen

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Red bone marrow

 

158. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.
B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
D. It is present at upper end of left atrium.

Answer

Correct Answer: A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.

 

159. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:

A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves
D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves

 

160. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Creatine
D. Creatinine

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Uric acid

 

161. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:

A. Liver
B. Nephron
C. Kidney
D. Glomerulus

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Liver

 

162. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

A. Striated muscles
B. Sphincter muscles
C. Smooth muscles
D. Circular muscles

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Sphincter muscles 

 

163. The living cells of cartilage are called:

A. Chrondrocytes
B. Ostecytes
C. Osteoblasts
D. Osteoclasts

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Chrondrocytes 

 

164. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
B. Arthritis
C. Disc slip
D. Spondylosis

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Spondylosis 

 

165. During muscle contraction

A. I-band shortens
B. Actin filaments shorten
C. Myosin filaments shorten
D. Z-line disappears

Answer

Correct Answer: A. I-band shortens 

 

166. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?

A. They initiate new biochemical reactions
B. They may be proteins
C. They are poured directly into blood
D. They affect target cells

Answer

Correct Answer: A. They initiate new biochemical reactions 

 

167. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviors respond to which combination /s:

A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
C. Aggression, mating and altruism
D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation.

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Aggression, mating and altruism 

 

168. A typical neuron at rest:

A. Is more positive outside than inside
B. Has no charge on either side
C. Is more negative outside than inside
D. has an equal charge on either side

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Is more positive outside than inside 

 

169. The first cells produced by the repeated cell division of germinal epithelium of testis are:

A. Interstitial cells
B. Secondary spermatocytes
C. Spermatogonia
D. Spermatids

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Spermatogonia 

 

170. Which chromosomal abnormality in humans causes aggressive and antisocial behavior?

A. XO
B. XYY
C. XXY
D. XXX

Answer

Correct Answer: B. XYY 

 

171. Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:

A. Muscle cells
B. Notochord and neural tube
C. Gut
D. Larval epidermis

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Notochord and neural tube 

 

172. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?

A. Chromosomal rearrangement
B. Chromosomal aberration
C. Transposition of gene
D. Point mutation

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Point mutation 

 

173. The karyotype of an individual is ____ of chromosomes.

A. Number
B. Number, types and chemical composition
C. Types
D. Number and types

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Number and types 

 

174. The Process of replication of DNA begins at:

A. One place only without any specific sequence of DNA
B. One or more places without any specific sequence of DNA
C. Any place with the uncoiling of two strands of DNA
D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides

Answer

Correct Answer: D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides 

 

175. Amino acid attaches at which site of RNA:

A. Anticodon site
B. 3’-site with terminal OH
C. Ribosomes recognition site
D. Activation enzyme recognition site

Answer

Correct Answer: B. 3’-site with terminal OH 

 

176. Microtubules of spindle fibers are composed of a protein called:

A. Tubulin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Troponin

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Tubulin 

 

177. The kinetochore fibers contract and spindle or pole fibers elongate during:

A. Prophase I
B. Telophase I
C. Metaphase I
D. Anaphase I

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Anaphase I 

 

178. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Metastasis
D. Epistasis

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Necrosis 

 

179. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:

A. X-linked
B. Y-linked
C. Autosomal
D. X and Y-linked

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Y-linked 

 

180. Epistasis is a relationship between:

A. Alleles of a gene
B. Two contrasting traits
C. Two different genes at the same locus
D. Two different genes at different loci

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Two different genes at different loci 

 

181. Gene for albinism in man is present on chromosome number:

A. 11
B. 21
C. 22
D. 12

Answer

Correct Answer: A. 11 

 

182. Gene can be synthesized in the laboratory from messenger RNA by using:

A. Restriction enzymes
B. Vector
C. cDNA (complementary DNA)
D. Reverse transcriptase

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Reverse transcriptase 

 

183. Antibiotic resistance genes for tetracycline and ampicillin are present in the plasmid:

A. pSC 101
B. pBR 322
C. pCR 101
D. pBR 233

Answer

Correct Answer: B. pBR 322 

 

184. Cloning is a form of:

A. Sexual Reproduction
B. Vegetative Propagation
C. Asexual Reproduction
D. Genetic Recombination

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Vegetative Propagation 

 

185. Group of interbreeding individuals of particular species, sharing common geographical area is called:

A. Population
B. Community
C. Community ecology
D. Autecology

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Population 

 

186. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?

A. Haemoglobin
B. Cytochrome
C. Myoglobin
D. Pilin

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Cytochrome 

 

187. Ozone filters ultraviolet radiations from the sun in the upper:

A. Biosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Atmosphere
D. Hydrosphere

Answer

Correct Answer: C. Atmosphere 

 

188. A parasite living inside body of the host is called:

A. Ectoparasite
B. Facultative parasite
C. Obligate parasite
D. Endoparasite

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Endoparasite 

 

189. An association between two organisms benefiting both is called:

A. Commensalism
B. Predation
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis

Answer

Correct Answer: D. Symbiosis 

 

190. In aquatic ecosystem, human activities may accelerate the process of:

A. Eutrophication
B. Decomposition
C. Photosynthesis
D. Recycling

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Eutrophication 

 

191. Beri Beri is due to:

A. Metabolic disorder
B. Nutritional deficiency
C. Chemical causes
D. Mental Illness

Answer

Correct Answer: B. Nutritional deficiency 

 

192. The natural heat energy trapped underground is:

A. Geothermal energy
B. Electric energy
C. Thermal energy
D. Solar energy

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Geothermal energy 

 

193. Which of the following is the lowest level of biological organization with respect to others?

A. Multicellular organisms
B. Species
C. Biosphere
D. Population

Answer

Correct Answer: A. Multicellular organisms 

 

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