Note: Sindh Public Service Commission Hyderabad Combined Competitive Examination 2023 held 1st December 2024, Contains 100+ solved mcqs of English Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Structure, Direct, Indirect Voices, Math, General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General Science.
1. Synonym of the word “Banish” is?
A. Abhorrent
B. Frank
C. Exile
D. Delight
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Exile
Detail about Mcqs
Some common synonyms of banish are deport, exile, and transport. While all these words mean “to remove by authority from a state or country,” banish implies compulsory removal from a country not necessarily one’s own. banished for seditious activities.
2. Synonyms of the word “Brazen”
A. Audacious
B. Calm
C. Affable
D. Inessential
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Audacious
Detail about Mcqs
Brazen means bold and shameless, often in a way that disregards convention or propriety. Audacious also means bold and daring, sometimes to the point of being disrespectful or reckless.
3. Antonym of the word “Hapless” is?
A. Countless
B. Fortunate
C. Woeful
D. Intensity
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Fortunate
Detail about Mcqs
The correct antonym for the word “Hapless” (which means unlucky or unfortunate) is:
B. Fortunate
4. Antonym of the word “Dwindle”
A. Decay
B. Calculable
C. Increase
D. Support
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Increase
Detail about Mcqs
The correct antonym of “Dwindle” is:
C. Increase
Explanation:
Dwindle means to diminish or decrease in size, amount, or strength.
Increase means to grow or become larger, which is the opposite of dwindling.
5. Insert the word that completes the first word and begins the second: SHR (—-)LING:
A. INE
B. INK
C. ONG
D. EEN
Answer
Correct Answer: B. INK
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. INK
Explanation:
The word “SHRINK” completes the first word and the word “INKLING” begins the second.
SHRINK means to reduce in size.
INKLING means a slight hint or vague idea.
6. One word substitution: Study of relationship between environment and organism?
A. Anthropology
B. Gerontology
C. Ecology
D. Lithography
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Ecology
Detail about Mcqs
Ecology is the branch of biology that studies the relationships between organisms and their environment.
7. One word substitution: Matter written by hand:
A. Ascription
B. Conscript
C. Manuscript
D. Conscript
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Manuscript
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Manuscript
Explanation:
Manuscript refers to matter written by hand or an original handwritten or typed document, especially a writer’s draft before publication.
8. Complete the sentence: The ___ reply of my sister conveyed the clear message that she was not happy with me.
A. Vivacious
B. Sinuous
C. Gentle
D. Terse
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Terse
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. Terse
Explanation:
Terse means brief and to the point, often in a way that suggests annoyance or disapproval.
In the context, the sister’s reply being “terse” indicates that she was not happy.
9. Which one of the following sentences is grammatically wrong?
A. I gave Sarah a ride to work today
B. My friend Ismail and Me went to the party
C. Before we left, Farah and I said goodbye to the lost
D. Samra accidentally hit me with her bag
Answer
Correct Answer: B. My friend Ismail and ME went to the Party
Detail about Mcqs
The grammatically incorrect sentence is:
B. My friend Ismail and Me went to the party
Correct Version:
“My friend Ismail and I went to the party.”
Explanation:
The subject of the sentence should be “I”, not “me”, because it is part of the subject of the sentence.
“Me” is used as an object, not as a subject.
10. Hear & here, Flower & Flour, Sell & cell are the example of:
A. Homophone
B. Homograph
C. Eoocorn
D. Oxymoron
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Homophone
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Homophone
Explanation:
Homophones are words that sound the same but have different meanings and spellings.
Examples:
Hear and here
Flower and flour
Sell and cell
11. Change the voice of the following sentence: Can those happy moments be ever forgotten by me?
A. Shall I ever forget those happy moments?
B. Can I ever forget those happy moments?
C. Will I ever forget those happy moments?
D. Could I ever forget those happy moments?
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Can I ever forget those happy moments?
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. Can I ever forget those happy moments?
Explanation:
The original sentence is in the passive voice. To change it into the active voice, the subject becomes the doer of the action, and the structure of the sentence is altered while maintaining the original meaning.
Passive Voice: Can those happy moments be ever forgotten by me?
Active Voice: Can I ever forget those happy moments?
This keeps the meaning intact and aligns with the verb “can” from the original sentence.
12. Change the voice of the following sentence: Rain disrupted the last day’s play between Pakistan and Australia.
A. The last day’s play of Pakistan and Australia was disrupted by rain
B. Pakistan and Australia’s play of the last day as disrupted by rain
C. The last day’s play between Pakistan and Australia was disrupted by rain
D. The last day’s play between Pakistan and Australia were disrupted by rain
Answer
Correct Answer: A. The last day’s play of Pakistan and Australia was disrupted by rain
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. The last day’s play of Pakistan and Australia was disrupted by rain.
Explanation:
In passive voice, the subject (in this case, “rain”) becomes the agent and the object of the action (in this case, “the last day’s play”) becomes the subject of the sentence.
The sentence “The last day’s play of Pakistan and Australia was disrupted by rain” correctly follows the passive structure while maintaining the meaning of the original sentence.
13. Change the following sentence from Direct to indirect speech: He asked his teacher, “ Need I read this chapter”?
A. He asked his teacher whether there was a need to read that chapter
B. He asked his teacher whether he needed to read this chapter
C. He asked his teacher if it was necessary to read this chapter
D. He asked his teacher if he had to read that chapter
Answer
Correct Answer: B. He asked his teacher whether he needed to read this chapter
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. He asked his teacher whether he needed to read this chapter.
Explanation:
In indirect speech, we remove the quotation marks, change the tense (if needed), and adjust pronouns as necessary.
The question is a yes/no question, so “whether” is used, and the sentence is rephrased to fit indirect speech.
The verb “need” changes to “needed” to reflect the past tense in indirect speech.
14. Change the following sentence from Direct to Indirect speech: The doctor said to the patient, “How do you feel now”? has the pain gone down”?
A. The doctor asked the patient how he was feeling then and if the pain was down.
B. The doctor asked the patient how he felt then and if the pain had gone down
C. The doctor asked the patient how he had felt when the pain was gone
D. The doctor asked the patient how he is feeling now and if the pain has gone down
Answer
Correct Answer: B. The doctor asked the patient how he felt then and if the pain had gone down
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. The doctor asked the patient how he felt then and if the pain had gone down.
Explanation:
In indirect speech, we change the tense of the verbs and remove quotation marks.
Since the original sentence is in the present tense (“How do you feel now?” and “Has the pain gone down?”), we shift to the past tense in indirect speech.
“How do you feel now?” becomes “how he felt then” (past tense), and “has the pain gone down?” becomes “if the pain had gone down” (past perfect tense).
15. Change the following sentence from Indirect to Direct speech: The porter respectfully assured the lady that he would care of her luggage while she bought her tickets:
A. The porter said, “I would take care of your luggage while you buy your ticket. Madam”
B. The porter said, “I will take care of your baggage while you bought your ticket, Madam”
C. The porter said, “I would take care of your baggage while you bought your ticket, Madam”
D. The porter said to the lady, “I would take care of your baggage while you bought your ticket”
Answer
Correct Answer: B. The porter said, “I will take care of your baggage while you bought your ticket, Madam”
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. The porter said, “I will take care of your baggage while you bought your ticket, Madam.”
Explanation:
In direct speech, the exact words spoken are quoted, and the punctuation and tense are preserved.
The sentence is in the future tense (“he would take care”), so in direct speech, it should be in the future tense (“I will take care”).
“Bought” in indirect speech should remain as it is in direct speech because it was an action that happened simultaneously with the future tense event (while she buys the ticket).
16. Change the following sentence from Indirect to Direct speech: My friend requested me to bring him a sandwich
A. “Please bring me a sandwich’, said my friend
B. He said, ‘My friend, please bring me a sandwich’
C. “please bring my friend a sandwich., said he
D. My friend said, “Will you bring me a sandwich’
Answer
Correct Answer: A. “Please bring me a sandwich’, said my friend
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. “Please bring me a sandwich,” said my friend.
Explanation:
In direct speech, the exact words spoken are quoted, and the sentence should begin and end with quotation marks.
The indirect request “My friend requested me to bring him a sandwich” becomes a direct request, and the polite phrasing “please” is used in the direct speech form
17. Choose the complex sentence out of the given options:
A. I will give you your present after you eat your dinner
B. He did not want to go to the party, yet he went anyway
C. The bridge is very long
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: A. I will give you your present after you eat your dinner
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. I will give you your present after you eat your dinner.
Explanation:
A complex sentence contains one independent clause (a complete thought) and at least one dependent clause (a clause that cannot stand alone).
In this case:
Independent clause: “I will give you your present.”
Dependent clause: “After you eat your dinner.”
The dependent clause begins with the subordinating conjunction “after,” making it a complex sentence.
18. Which one of the options given below, correctly combines the following two sentences into a compound sentence?
• The sky was clear.
• The sun was setting.
A. The sky was clear while the sun was setting
B. The sky was clear, for the sun was setting
C. The sky was clear, and the sun was setting
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: C. The sky was clear, and the sun was setting
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. The sky was clear, and the sun was setting.
Explanation:
A compound sentence consists of two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction (such as “and,” “but,” “or,” “for,” etc.).
Both “The sky was clear” and “The sun was setting” are independent clauses that can stand alone.
In Option C, the conjunction “and” joins them correctly, forming a compound sentence.
19. Meaning of the idiom: Make a bee line.
A. Go Straight to
B. Stand in a queue
C. Look for Freebies
D. Put the bees
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Go Straight to
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Go straight to.
Explanation:
The idiom “make a beeline” means to head directly and quickly toward something, much like a bee flies directly to its destination (usually a flower).
20. Meaning of the idiom: Talking twenty to the dozen.
A. Talking too much
B. Talking out of turn
C. Taking rapidly and without stopping
D. Talking without making any sense
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Talking rapidly and without stopping
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Talking rapidly and without stopping.
Explanation:
The idiom “talking twenty to the dozen” refers to speaking very quickly and continuously, often with great enthusiasm or excitement.
21. In a class of 40 students, 20% are girls. How many boys are there in the class?
A. 30
B. 32
C. 28
D. 29
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 32
Detail about Mcqs
Step-by-step Solution:
Total students in the class: 404040
Percentage of girls: 20%20\%20%
To find the number of girls:
Number of girls = 20/100×40 = 8
Number of boys:
Number of boys = Total Students – Number of Girls
= 40-8 = 32
Correct Answer:
B. 32
22. Insert the missing number from the choices given below: 7, 10, 9,12, 11?
A. 13 & 12
B. 15& 14
C. 12& 10
D. 14 & 13
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 14 & 13
Detail about Mcqs
Analyzing the Pattern:
The sequence alternates between increasing by 3 and decreasing by 1:
7 → 10: Increase by 3.
10 → 9: Decrease by 1.
9 → 12: Increase by 3.
12 → 11: Decrease by 1.
Continuing the Pattern:
11 → 14: Increase by 3.
14 → 13: Decrease by 1.
Correct Answer:
D. 14 & 13
23. Find the odd one out:
A. Spider
B. Ant
C. Moth
D. Bee
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Spider
Detail about Mcqs
To find the odd one out, we consider the characteristics of the given options:
Spider: An arachnid with eight legs and no wings.
Ant: An insect with six legs and no wings (usually, though some ants can have wings temporarily).
Moth: An insect with six legs and wings.
Bee: An insect with six legs and wings.
The odd one out:
A. Spider
All others (ant, moth, bee) are insects, while the spider is an arachnid.
Correct Answer:
A. Spider
24. MOLY : : SLOB as LOW : 😕
A. One
B. Glow
C. Bow
D. OLD
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Bow
Detail about Mcqs
To solve this analogy, let’s analyze the relationship between the given pairs:
MOLY : SLOB
Rearrange the letters of MOLY to form SLOB. Specifically, it’s a reversal with slight letter manipulation.
LOW : ?
Applying the same logic, reverse LOW to WOL and look for a meaningful word or similar manipulation in the options.
Correct Answer:
C. Bow
Rearranging the letters of LOW gives BOW, a valid and meaningful word.
25. Solve: 2 -9(-3)x3 + 225/5 +3-10% =
A. 131
B. 131.9
C. 130.9
D. 132.8
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 130.9
Detail about Mcqs
Let’s solve step by step, ensuring the correct application of the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS: Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right)):
2 -9(-3)x3 + 225/5 +3-10% =
Step 1: Resolve parentheses.
−9(−3)=27
The equation becomes:
2+27×3 +225/5 +3 – 10%
Step 2: Perform multiplication and division from left to right.
The equation now becomes:
27×3=81
225/4 = 45
10%=10÷100 = 0.1
The equation now becomes:
2+81+45+3−0.1
Step 3: Perform addition and subtraction from left to right.
2+81=83
83+45=128
128+3= 131
131−0.1=130.9
So Correct Answer is: C. 130.9
26. Insert the missing letter: A D M M S?
A. T
B. P
C. L
D. Z
Answer
Correct Answer: A. T
Detail about Mcqs
The given sequence is A, D, M, M, S.
A = 1, D = 4, M = 13, M = 13, S = 19
The pattern in the sequence is: +3, +9, +0, +6.
To continue the pattern, add +3 to S (19):
19 + 3 = 22, which corresponds to T.
Answer: A. T
27. Insert the missing number: 12, 21, 32, 34 ?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 43
D. 32
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 22
Detail about Mcqs
Let’s analyze the pattern:
The given sequence is 12, 21, 32, 34.
12 → 21: The digits are reversed.
21 → 32: The digits are reversed.
32 → 34: The pattern seems to be that the first digit increases by 1 (3 → 3, 2 → 4).
The next step should continue the pattern by keeping the first digit as 3 and increasing the second digit by 1.
Final Answer: B. 22
28. Insert the missing number: 14, 9, 5, 21, 8, 13, 28, 9 ?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 18
D. 19
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 19
Detail about Mcqs
The sequence is: 14, 9, 5, 21, 8, 13, 28, 9.
Odd positions: 14, 5, 8, 28 (no clear pattern).
Even positions: 9, 21, 13, 9 (shows a rising and falling trend).
The next number in the even position should follow this trend, making it 19.
Answer:
D. 19
29. Select one from the following pairs that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair: DOLLAR : : DIME
A. Century : : Decade
B. Retreat : : Victory
C. Ring : : Necklace
D. Saleswoman : : Pitch
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Century : : Decade
Detail about Mcqs
The relationship between Dollar and Dime is that a Dime is a smaller unit or part of a Dollar (1 Dollar = 10 Dimes).
Similarly, a Decade is a smaller unit or part of a Century (1 Century = 10 Decades).
30. Select one from the following pairs that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair : HORSE : : MARE
A. DONKEY : : PONY
B. FOX : : VIKEN
C. DUCK : : GEESE
D. DOG : : PUPPY
Answer
Correct Answer: B. FOX : : VIKEN
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. FOX : : VIXEN
Explanation:
The relationship between HORSE and MARE is that a MARE is the female counterpart of a HORSE. Similarly, a VIXEN is the female counterpart of a FOX.
31. Find the missing number: Driver = 7, Parliamentarian = 16, Secretary = ?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 10
Detail about Mcqs
Let’s analyze the relationship between the words and numbers:
Driver = 7
Parliamentarian = 16
We need to identify a pattern, and a reasonable approach is to consider the number of letters in each word.
Driver has 6 letters, but the number is 7. This might suggest adding 1 to the letter count.
Parliamentarian has 15 letters, and the number is 16. Again, we add 1 to the letter count.
Apply this pattern to Secretary:
Secretary has 9 letters. If we add 1, we get 10.
Final Answer:
C. 10
32. What is the sum of prime number less than 25?
A. 49
B. 57
C. 100
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 100
Detail about Mcqs
Step-by-step Solution:
The prime numbers less than 25 are:
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23
Now, let’s add them together:
2+3+5+7+11+13+17+19+23=100
Final Answer:
C. 100
33. Asad has 20 sweets and Ahsan has 55. How many sweets should Asad gives to Ahsan so that Ahsan has four times as many sweets as Asad:
A. 9
B. 8
C. 5
D. 6
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 5
Detail about Mcqs
To solve:
Let x be the number of sweets Asad gives to Ahsan.
• After giving x sweets, Asad will have (20 – x), and Ahsan will have (55 + x).
• The condition is that Ahsan has four times as many sweets as Asad:
• 55+x=4 (20−x)
• Solve:
• 55+x=80−4x
• 5x=25
• x=5
The correct result is 5.
34. What should follow: PQS, QRT, RSU, STV, ___?
A. TVY
B. SUT
C. TUX
D. TUW
Answer
Correct Answer: D. TUW
Detail about Mcqs
The sequence is: PQS, QRT, RSU, STV
• The first letters follow the pattern: P, Q, R, S (increasing by 1 letter each time).
• The second letters follow: Q, R, S, T (increasing by 1 letter).
• The third letters follow: S, T, U, V (increasing by 1 letter).
So, after STV, the next set should be:
First letter: T
Second letter: U
Third letter: W
Thus, the next term is TUW.
Answer:
D. TUW
35. Ibrahim sold his motor cycle for Rs 24000 and earned 20% profit. What was the original price?
A. 20200
B. 20000
C. 22000
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 20000
Detail about Mcqs
To find the original price of Ibrahim’s motorbike, we can use the formula for calculating profit:
Selling Price=Cost Price+Profit
Since Ibrahim earned a 20% profit, the selling price is 120% of the original cost price. We can express this as:
Selling Price=Cost Price x 120/100
Given that the selling price is Rs 24000, we can substitute this into the equation:
24000=Cost Price×1.2
Now, solve for the cost price:
Cost Price= 24000/1.2 = 20000
So, the original price of the motorcycle was Rs 20,000.
36. Zara walks 4km northwards and then turns left and goes 3 km. She again turns left and goes 1 km. She then turns right and walks straight. In which direction she was walking?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
Answer
Correct Answer: D. West
Detail about Mcqs
To determine the direction Zara was walking, let’s trace her steps:
Initial direction: Zara walks 4 km northwards.
First turn: She turns left. From north, turning left means she now walks west for 3 km.
Second turn: She turns left again. From west, turning left means she now walks south for 1 km.
Third turn: She turns right. From south, turning right means she now walks west.
Thus, Zara is walking west.
The correct answer is D. West.
37. Solve: 4-13 -5+8 –(-4) – 15/3 = ___?
A. 5
B. 8
C. -5
D. -7
Answer
Correct Answer: D. -7
Detail about Mcqs
4-13 -5+8 –(-4) – 15/3
Step 1: Simplify each operation
Resolve −(−4):This becomes +4.
Simplify 15/3: This becomes 5
Now the expression becomes:
4−13−5+8+4−5
Step 2: Perform addition and subtraction in order
4−13=−9
−9−5=−14
-14+8=−6
−6+4=−2
−2−5=−7
The result is -7, so the correct answer is D. -7
38. In a group consisting of 49 students, 35 students like football and 29 like hockey. What is the number of students who like both football and hockey?
A. 15
B. 13
C. 21
D. 20
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 15
Detail about Mcqs
We can solve this using the formula for the union of two sets:
Number of students liking football or hockey=Students liking football+Students liking hockey−Students liking both
Given:
• Total students: 49
• Students liking football: 35
• Students liking hockey: 29
Let x be the number of students who like both football and hockey. The formula becomes:
49=35+29−x
Solve for x:
49=64−x
x=64−49
x=15
The number of students who like both football and hockey is A. 15
39. Sohaib is taller than Ahsan, but shorter than Asad, Zohair is the shortest. Hamza is taller than Zohair, but shorter than Ahsan. Who is the tallest?
A. Hamza
B. Ahsan
C. Asad
D. Sohaib
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Asad
Detail about Mcqs
To determine who is the tallest, let’s analyze the relationships step by step:
1. Sohaib is taller than Ahsan, but shorter than Asad:
• Order: Asad>Sohaib>Ahsan.
2. Zohair is the shortest:
Order: Zohair<Hamza,Ahsan,Sohaib,Asad.
3. Hamza is taller than Zohair, but shorter than Ahsan:
Order: Zohair<Hamza<Ahsan<Sohaib<Asad.
Conclusion:
The tallest person is Asad.
The correct answer is C. Asad.
40. Two trains each of 1160 meters are running in opposite directions with same speed. If they cross each other in 20 seconds, then what is the speed of each train in km per hour?
A. 209.6 km/hour
B. 260 km/hour
C. 257.2 km/hour
D. 208.8 km/ hour
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 208.8 km/hour
Detail about Mcqs
Given:
Length of each train = 1160m
Time to cross each other = 20s
Steps:
Total distance = 1160+1160=2320m.
Relative speed = 2320/20 = 116m/s
Convert 116 m/s to kmh
116×3.6 = =417.6km/h
Speed of each train = 417.6 /2 = 208.8km/h
So correct answer is: D. 208.8km/h
41. Muslim league opposed Khilafat Movement because:
A. It preferred a more secular and constitutional approach to political issues
B. Khilafat Movement’s alignment with Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement could lead to chaos and disorder
C. Khilafat Movement created dissension among Muslims
D. All of these
Answer
Correct Answer: D. All of these
Detail about Mcqs
The Muslim League opposed the Khilafat Movement for several reasons, including:
Preference for a secular and constitutional approach: The Muslim League emphasized constitutional methods and was wary of religiously charged movements.
Alignment with Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement: The Muslim League feared that joining forces with Gandhi’s movement could lead to political chaos and alienate moderate Muslims.
Internal dissension among Muslims: The Khilafat Movement caused divisions within the Muslim community over its goals and methods.
The correct option is D. All of these.
42. Article ___ of constitution of Islamic Republic of Pakistan 1973, says that Islam shall be the State religion:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 01
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2
Detail about Mcqs
The article in the Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan (1973) that declares Islam as the state religion is:
Article 2:
“Islam shall be the State religion of Pakistan.”
The correct option is C. 2.
43. Pakistan hosted the ___ meeting of the Council of the Heads of Government (CHG) of the member States of the Shanghai cooperation organization (SCO) from 15 to 16 October, 2024 in Islamabad?
A. 23rd
B. 25th
C. 24th
D. 26th
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 23rd
Detail about Mcqs
Pakistan hosted the 23rd meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Council of Heads of Government (CHG) on October 15-16, 2024, in Islamabad
Therefore, the correct answer is: A. 23rd.
44. Indian Councils Act 1861 established legislature councils in the presidencies of?
A. Calcutta and Delhi
B. Calcutta and Madras
C. Delhi and Lucknow
D. Bombay and Madras
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Bombay and Madras
Detail about Mcqs
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 established legislature councils in the presidencies of Bombay and Madras. The act restored the legislative powers of these presidencies, which had been taken away by the Charter Act of 1833. The act’s goals were to decentralize power and address the demands of educated Indians for more participation in governance.
45. British Viceroy ___ was the architect of partition of Bengal?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Duffenin
C. Lord Minto
D. Lord Canning
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Lord Curzon
Detail about Mcqs
The British Viceroy Lord Curzon was the architect of the partition of Bengal, which took place in 1905. Lord Curzon’s decision was made under the pretext of administrative convenience but was widely seen as an attempt to divide and rule by creating divisions between the Hindu and Muslim populations. This action sparked protests and led to widespread discontent, eventually contributing to the rise of the Indian independence movement.
46. The main Muslim demand of Simla Deputation, which was accepted in Minto – Morley Reforms of 1909 was about:
A. Separate Muslim State
B. Separation of Sindh from Bombay
C. Muslim University
D. Separate Electorate
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Separate Electorate
Detail about Mcqs
The main demand of the Simla Deputation (1906), which was later accepted in the Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909, was the provision of Separate Electorates for Muslims. This allowed Muslims to elect their own representatives in legislative councils, ensuring that their political interests were distinctively represented.
This demand stemmed from the concern that Muslims, as a minority, would be overshadowed in a purely majoritarian electoral system.
47. In 1942, Muslim league did not take part in ___?
A. Khilafat Movement
B. Quit India Movement
C. Round table Conference
D. Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Quit India Movement
Detail about Mcqs
In 1942, the Muslim League did not take part in the Quit India Movement, which was led by the Indian National Congress and called for an immediate end to British rule in India. The Muslim League, under Muhammad Ali Jinnah, opposed the movement because it believed that the Congress did not adequately represent Muslim interests. Instead, the League focused on its demand for the creation of Pakistan.
48. Interim government formed in India in 1946, in which Muslim League was given ___ ministries?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Three
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Five
Detail about Mcqs
The Muslim League was given five ministries in the Interim Government of India in 1946. The ministries included Finance, Commerce, Railways, Law, and Health. Notable members representing the League were Liaquat Ali Khan (Finance), I.I. Chundrigar (Commerce), and Abdur Rab Nishtar (Health), among others
49. Congress agreed to reserve ___ seats for Muslims in the Central Legislative Council while going consent to the lucknow Pact at a joint session of Muslim League and congress held at lucknow in December 1916?
A. One Fourth
B. One Third
C. One Sixth
D. One Fifth
Answer
Correct Answer: B. One Third
Detail about Mcqs
In the Lucknow Pact of 1916, Congress agreed to reserve one-third (1/3) of the seats for Muslims in the Central Legislative Council. This agreement was part of the broader compromise between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League to present a united front to the British government for greater self-rule in India.
This provision was aimed at ensuring adequate political representation for Muslims in legislative affairs, addressing their minority concerns.
50. The system of Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the ___?
A. Indian Councils Act 1892
B. Indian Councils Act 1861
C. Mortagu Chelmsford Reforms
D. Minto-Morley
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Mortagu Chelmsford Reforms
Detail about Mcqs
The system of Dyarchy at the provincial level was introduced by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, implemented through the Government of India Act, 1919. Dyarchy divided provincial subjects into two categories:
Transferred subjects: Administered by Indian ministers.
Reserved subjects: Administered by British officials.
This was a step toward involving Indians in governance but retained significant control with the British.
51. National anthem of Islamic Republic of Pakistan was officially adopted in?
A. 1948
B. 1950
C. 1954
D. 1956
Answer
Correct Answer: C. 1954
Detail about Mcqs
In 1954 the national anthem was officially adopted by Pakistan. It was recorded by a group of singers, including Ahmad Rushdi, Najam Ara, Naseema Shaheen, Zawar Hussain, Akhtar Abbas, Ghulam Dastagir, Anwar Zaheer, Akhtar Wasi Ali, Kaukab Jahan and Rasheeda Begum
52. Harappa is located on the banks of ___?
A. Sutlej River
B. Chenab River
C. Ravi River
D. Indus River
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Ravi River
Detail about Mcqs
Harappa, one of the key archaeological sites of the Indus Valley Civilization, is located on the banks of the Ravi River in present-day Pakistan. The city was an important center of the ancient civilization, known for its advanced urban planning, drainage systems, and trade networks.
53. In which Province, Bakhar fort is located?
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Baluchistan
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Sindh
Detail about Mcqs
Bakhar Fort, also known as Bukkur Fort, is located in Sindh province, specifically on an island in the Indus River near Sukkur and Rohri. It is a historical site with remnants dating back to the Arab rule in the 13th century. The fort served as a significant military and administrative center during its time.
54. Name the Shaheed belonging to Gilgit Baltistan, who was awarded Nishan-e-Haider for his extra ordinary gallantry and courage.
A. Havildar Lalak Jan
B. Kamal Sher Khan
C. Muhammad Mahfooz
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Havildar Lalak Jan
Detail about Mcqs
The Shaheed from Gilgit-Baltistan who was awarded the Nishan-e-Haider for his extraordinary gallantry and courage is Havildar Lalak Jan. He embraced martyrdom during the Kargil War in 1999, where he fought bravely to defend Pakistan’s borders. He is celebrated as a national hero for his sacrifice and valor.
55. River Kunhar flows through Khagan valley and joins ___river?
A. Kabul
B. Chenab
C. Ravi
D. Jhelum
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Jhelum
Detail about Mcqs
The Kunhar River flows through the Kaghan Valley and eventually joins the Jhelum River near Muzaffarabad in Azad Jammu and Kashmir, Pakistan
The correct answer is: D. Jhelum
56. What was the full name of Prime Minister L.I Chundrigar?
A. Imam Intizar Chundrigar
B. Ibrahim Ismael Chundrigar
C. Iqbal Ibrahim Chundrigar
D. Itimad Iqbal Chundrigar
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Ibrahim Ismael Chundrigar
Detail about Mcqs
The full name of Prime Minister L.I. Chundrigar was Ibrahim Ismael Chundrigar. He served as the 12th Prime Minister of Pakistan in 1957.
57. Which is the largest Division of Pakistan in terms of area?
A. Multan
B. Kalat
C. Lahore
D. Hyderabad
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Kalat
Detail about Mcqs
The largest division of Pakistan in terms of area is Kalat. It is located in the province of Balochistan and covers a vast expanse of land, making it the largest division by area in the country.
58. Who scored the first double century in ODIs from Pakistan?
A. Baber Azam
B. Younus Khan
C. Fakhar Zaman
D. Muhammad Rizwan
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Fakhar Zaman
Detail about Mcqs
The first double century in ODIs for Pakistan was scored by Fakhar Zaman. He achieved this milestone against Zimbabwe on July 20, 2018, scoring an unbeaten 210 runs off 156 balls. This remarkable performance made him the first Pakistani cricketer to reach this milestone in One Day Internationals
59. ___ has signed the boundary agreement with china?
A. Yahya Khan
B. Zulfiqar Ali Butto
C. Ayub Khan
D. Muhammad Ali Bogra
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Ayub Khan
Detail about Mcqs
The boundary agreement with China, known as the Sino-Pakistan Boundary Agreement, was signed on March 2, 1963, during the tenure of President Ayub Khan. This agreement formally demarcated the border between Pakistan and China, leading to territorial adjustments on both sides. Ayub Khan played a significant role in strengthening Pakistan-China relations during this period
Thus, the correct answer is:
C. Ayub Khan
60. Fifth Prime Minister of Pakistan was ___?
A. Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy
B. Feroz Khan Noon
C. LI Chundrigar
D. Chaudhry Muhammad Ali
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy
Detail about Mcqs
The fifth Prime Minister of Pakistan was indeed Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy, who served from September 12, 1956, to October 17, 1957. He was a prominent political leader and a founding member of the Awami League. Suhrawardy played a significant role in advocating for democracy and worked to bridge differences between East and West Pakistan during his tenure.
The confusion might arise because Feroz Khan Noon succeeded Suhrawardy, making him the sixth Prime Minister of Pakistan.
Correct Answer: A. Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy.
61. How many countries are officially recognized as possessing nuclear weapons by the NPT:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer
Correct Answer: B. 5
Detail about Mcqs
Under the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), five countries are officially recognized as nuclear-weapon states (NWS). These are:
United States
Russia
China
United Kingdom
France
These nations are recognized under the NPT because they had tested nuclear weapons before January 1, 1967, as stipulated by the treaty.
Other countries, such as India, Pakistan, and North Korea, have nuclear weapons but are not recognized under the NPT because they are not signatories or withdrew from the treaty (in the case of North Korea).
62. FATF stands for ___?
A. Federal Agency Task Force
B. Financial Authority Task Force
C. Financial Action Task Force
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Financial Action Task Force
Detail about Mcqs
The FATF stands for Financial Action Task Force. It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1989 to develop policies to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and other threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
Correct Answer: C. Financial Action Task Force.
63. What is common in Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Republic of the Congo, Maldives and Indonesia?
A. Countries situated in Asia and Africa
B. Same Longitude
C. Equator passes through these countries
D. Same Topography
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Equator passes through these countries
Detail about Mcqs
The common factor among Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Republic of the Congo, Maldives, and Indonesia is that the Equator passes through these countries. The Equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, and it crosses these countries, giving them unique equatorial characteristics such as tropical climates and diverse ecosystems.
Correct Answer: C. Equator passes through these countries
64. New name of Zaire is:
A. Congo
B. Chad
C. Ghana
D. Mozambique
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Congo
Detail about Mcqs
The DRC stands for Democratic Republic of the Congo, formerly known as Zaire
65. Currency of Kenya is ___?
A. African Pound
B. Real
C. Pula
D. Shilling
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Shilling
Detail about Mcqs
The shilling (Swahili: shilingi; abbreviation: KSh; ISO code: KES) is the currency of Kenya.
66. Capital of Ukraine is ___?
A. Luanda
B. Kyiv
C. Nassau
D. Montevideo
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Kyiv
Detail about Mcqs
Kyiv is the capital and most populous city of Ukraine. It is in north-central Ukraine along the Dnieper River. As of 1 January 2022, its population was 2,952,301, making Kyiv the seventh-most populous city in Europe. Kyiv is an important industrial, scientific, educational, and cultural center in Eastern Europe.
67. What was the main declaration of the COP-26 Climate Conference held at Glasgow, Scotland?
A. Urgent need to reduce greenhouse emissions
B. Finalization of rules on reporting emissions and international carbon trading
C. Launch of a range of new initiatives and sector deals
D. All of these
Answer
Correct Answer: D. All of these
Detail about Mcqs
The main declaration of the COP-26 Climate Conference held in Glasgow in 2021 focused on several key outcomes. These included:
Urgent Reduction of Greenhouse Gas Emissions: To meet the goals of the Paris Agreement, countries were urged to present more ambitious climate pledges for reducing emissions to limit global warming to 1.5°C.
Rules for Carbon Trading and Reporting: Agreements were reached on finalizing the “rulebook” for the Paris Agreement, including guidelines for international carbon markets and regular reporting of climate data.
Global Initiatives and Sector Deals: New initiatives, such as pledges to reduce deforestation, phase down coal, and promote zero-emission vehicles, were launched.
Financial and Adaptation Measures: A commitment was made to double adaptation financing and address the gap in funding to help vulnerable nations tackle climate change impacts
68. Which country (Lies) took initiative to establish Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank?
A. ASEAN
B. China
C. G-7 Countries
D. Turkey
Answer
Correct Answer: B. China
Detail about Mcqs
The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was an initiative led by China. It was proposed in 2013 by Chinese President Xi Jinping and officially launched in January 2016. The AIIB aims to finance infrastructure projects in Asia and beyond, promoting sustainable development and regional economic cooperation.
Correct Answer: B. China.
69. Peace Plan to stop the Ukraine and Russia war was first proposed by China in collaboration with which country?
A. Brazil
B. Qatar
C. Indonesia
D. Saudi Arabia
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Brazil
Detail about Mcqs
On 24 May 2024, China and Brazil jointly presented a new six-point peace plan. The six-point proposal called for an international peace conference “held at a proper time that is recognised by both Russia and Ukraine, with equal participation of all parties as well as fair discussion of all peace plans.”
70. Mediterranean Sea is connected with Atlantic Ocean through Strait of ___?
A. Gibraltar
B. Palk
C. Cook
D. Sunda
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Gibraltar
Detail about Mcqs
The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea and separates Spain on the European continent from Morocco on the African continent.
71. The 16th annual BRICS summit was held in ___ on 22nd October, 2024?
A. Shanghai, China
B. Durban, South Africa
C. Kazan, Russia
D. Sao Paulo, Brazil
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Kazan, Russia
Detail about Mcqs
The 16th annual BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, on 22nd October 2024. This summit highlighted discussions on strengthening multilateralism, economic cooperation, and sustainable development, and it also welcomed new members into the BRICS alliance.
72. Which agreement was replaced by South Asian free Trade Area?
A. SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement 1993
B. SAARC Exclusive Trade Agreement 1994
C. SAARC Non Trade Barriers Removal Agreement 1994
D. SAARC Positive List Approval Agreement 1993
Answer
Correct Answer: A. SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement 1993
Detail about Mcqs
The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement, which came into effect in 2006, replaced the SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA), established in 1993. SAPTA aimed to promote intra-regional trade by providing trade concessions among SAARC member countries. However, SAFTA was introduced to create a more comprehensive free trade area to deepen economic integration in the region.
Correct answer: A. SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement 1993.
73. With respect to WTO, NAMA stands for ___?
A. Non Agriculture Market Access
B. Non Agranan Market Association
C. New Agriculture Managing Association
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Non Agriculture Market Acess
Detail about Mcqs
With respect to the World Trade Organization (WTO), NAMA stands for Non-Agricultural Market Access.
It refers to the negotiations aimed at reducing or eliminating tariffs and non-tariff barriers on industrial goods, including manufactured products, forestry, fisheries, and mining products, but excluding agricultural goods. NAMA is a critical aspect of WTO negotiations to promote global trade liberalization
74. Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 has been awarded to:
A. Bishop Titu
B. Nihon Hidankyo
C. Antonic Guterres
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Nihon Hidankyo
Detail about Mcqs
The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo on October 11, 2024, in Oslo, Norway
75. Which UN agency has its headquarters in Paris?
A. UNICEF
B. ILO
C. IMF
D. UNESCO
Answer
Correct Answer: D. UNESCO
Detail about Mcqs
UNESCO House. The Place de Fontenoy in Paris is home to UNESCO’s Headquarters. Inaugurated on November 3, 1958, it is today the Organisation’s main building.
76. Which country has the shortest written constitution in the world?
A. Mali
B. Malta
C. Maldives
D. Monaco
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Monaco
Detail about Mcqs
The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world, with 146,385 words in its English-language version, while the Constitution of Monaco is the shortest written constitution with 3,814 words.
77. Tsogdu, Folketing, Hrvatski, Vuan and Storting are the names of:
A. Cities
B. Historical Places
C. Parliaments
D. Currencies
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Parliaments
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Parliaments
These names correspond to the legislatures or parliaments of various countries:
Tsogdu: Refers to the parliament of Mongolia.
Folketing: The Danish parliament.
Hrvatski Sabor: The Croatian parliament (Hrvatski means “Croatian”).
Vuan: This may refer to specific assemblies, though more context may be needed.
Storting: The parliament of Norway
78. According to Article 23 of UN Charter, the Security Council shall consist of ___ members of the United Nations?
A. 15
B. 14
C. 13
D. 12
Answer
Correct Answer: A. 15
Detail about Mcqs
The Security Council consists of 15 members: 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent.
79. Which date world AIDS day is observed?
A. October 12
B. January 6
C. December 1
D. March 4
Answer
Correct Answer: C. December 1
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is C. December 1.
World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS and to remember those who have died from the disease.
80. Who is the current President of UN General Assembly?
A. Duma Bako
B. Alexander De Croo
C. Edi Rama
D. Phalemon Yang
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Phalemon Yang
Detail about Mcqs
Philémon Yang of Cameroon is currently serving as the President of the 79th session of the UN General Assembly, which begins in September 2024
81. Long-sight detect could be corrected by using ___ lens?
A. Diverging
B. Concave
C. Convex
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Convex
The correct answer is C. Convex.
Long-sightedness (hyperopia) can be corrected using convex lenses. These lenses help to focus light correctly onto the retina by converging light rays, which is beneficial for people who have difficulty seeing objects up close.
Detail about Mcqs
82. Bronze medals are made up of which metals?
A. Copper & Tin
B. Copper & Silver
C. Copper & Nickel
D. Copper & Zinc
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Copper & Tin
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is A. Copper & Tin.
Bronze medals are typically made from an alloy of copper and tin. The exact proportions of copper and tin can vary, but copper is the primary component in bronze.
83. The main component of bones and teeth is ___?
A. Calcium Sulphate
B. Calcium Carbonate
C. Calcium Phosphate
D. Calcium Nitrate
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Calcium Phosphate
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Calcium Phosphate
Explanation:
Bones and teeth are primarily composed of hydroxyapatite, a mineral form of calcium phosphate (Ca5(PO4)3(OH) which provides strength and rigidity.
Calcium carbonate is present in smaller amounts and has a minor role in bone composition.
Calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate are not significant components of bones or teeth.
84. What is the SI unit of Force?
A. Pascal
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Joule
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Newton
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. Newton
Explanation:
The SI unit of force is the Newton (N), named after Sir Isaac Newton. It is defined as the force required to accelerate a mass of 1 kilogram by 1 meter per second squared
(1 N= 1kg\cdotpm/s2)
85. Newton’s third law of motion states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Which of the following statement can inferred from the above-mentioned law of motion?
• Statement1: For every interactions, there is a pair of forces acting on the two interacting objects
• Statement2: The magnitude of the force on the first object equals the magnitude of the force on the second object
• Statement3: Forces always come in pairs- equal and opposite action-reaction force pairs
• Statement4: Action and its reaction act on the same bodies
• Statement5: Action and its reaction act on two different bodies.
A. All Statements can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
B. All Statement except 5th can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
C. All Statements except 4th can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
D. Only 1st statement can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
Answer
Correct Answer: C. All Statements except 4th can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. All Statements except 4th can be inferred from 3rd law of motion
Explanation:
Newton’s Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This implies the following:
Statement 1: True. For every interaction, there is a pair of forces acting on the two interacting objects.
Statement 2: True. The magnitudes of the forces are equal.
Statement 3: True. Forces always come in pairs, known as action-reaction pairs, and they are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
Statement 4: False. Action and reaction forces act on two different bodies, not the same body.
Statement 5: True. Action and reaction forces act on two different bodies.
Thus, all statements except Statement 4 are correct.
86. Which of the following blood types is known as universal recipient?
A. O+
B. A+
C. B-
D. AB+
Answer
Correct Answer: D. AB+
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. AB+
Explanation:
A person with AB+ blood type is called a universal recipient because:
They have A and B antigens on their red blood cells and no antibodies (anti-A or anti-B) in their plasma, allowing them to receive blood from any ABO blood group (A, B, AB, or O).
The Rh-positive (Rh+) factor means they can receive blood from both Rh-positive and Rh-negative donors.
87. The sun is visible a little before it rises on the horizon and a little after it sets below the horizon. This is the consequence of the phenomenon of:
A. Atmospheric Refraction
B. Total Internal Reflection
C. Atmospheric Dispersion
D. Scattering of sunlight
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Atmospheric Refraction
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Atmospheric Refraction
Explanation:
The phenomenon of atmospheric refraction causes the Sun to appear visible slightly before it rises above the horizon and slightly after it sets below the horizon.
This occurs because light rays from the Sun bend (refract) as they pass through layers of the Earth’s atmosphere, which have varying densities. The bending of light makes the Sun appear higher than its actual position.
88. Television signals cannot be received ordinarily beyond a particular distance due to:
A. Weak Antenna
B. Curvature of earth
C. Absorption of Signals in the air
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Curvature of Earth
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. Curvature of Earth
Explanation:
Television signals, especially those in the VHF and UHF bands, are transmitted as line-of-sight waves. This means the signals travel in straight lines and cannot bend around obstacles or follow the curvature of the Earth.
Beyond a certain distance, the Earth’s curvature causes these signals to move out of the receiver’s line of sight, making it impossible to receive the signals directly.
This limitation is why relay towers, satellites, or cable networks are used to transmit TV signals over long distances.
89. Tungsten is used in the manufacturing of an electric bulb because:
A. It is malleable
B. It is a good conductor
C. It is inexpensive
D. It has very high melting point
Answer
Correct Answer: D. It has very high melting point
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. It has a very high melting point
Explanation:
Tungsten is used as the filament material in electric bulbs because of its exceptionally high melting point (approximately 3422°C or 6192°F). This property allows the filament to get very hot and emit bright light without melting.
Additionally, tungsten has good electrical resistance, which ensures it can efficiently convert electrical energy into heat and light.
90. The weather balloon is not fully inflated on the ground before launch because?
A. It cannot withstand outside pressure if fully inflated
B. It cannot rise up in the air when fully inflated
C. The air inside the balloon expands as it rises and may burst
D. If balloons is fully inflated, it may not remain stable in a storm
Answer
Correct Answer: C. The air inside the balloon expands as it rises and may brust
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. The air inside the balloon expands as it rises and may burst.
Explanation:
As a weather balloon rises through the atmosphere, the air pressure decreases with altitude. If the balloon were fully inflated on the ground, the air inside the balloon would expand as the pressure outside the balloon drops during ascent. This expansion could cause the balloon to burst before it reaches the desired altitude.
91. Which of the following salt is the main cause of permanent hardness of water?
A. Magnesium Sulphate
B. Magnesium Bicarbonate
C. Magnesium Carbonate
D. Sodium Carbonate
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Magnesium Sulphate
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Magnesium Sulphate
Explanation:
Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of dissolved salts that do not precipitate easily when boiled. The primary contributors are calcium and magnesium salts in their sulphate or chloride form. Magnesium Sulphate (MgSO₄) is a common salt that causes permanent hardness because it does not get removed by boiling.
92. Which type of vitamin we get from sun?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B 12
D. Vitamin D
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Vitamin D
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. Vitamin D
Explanation:
Vitamin D is produced by the skin when it is exposed to sunlight, specifically UVB radiation. This process helps the body synthesize vitamin D, which is important for bone health, immune function, and calcium absorption.
The body can also get vitamin D from certain foods and supplements, but sunlight exposure is a primary source.
93. Which gas is used in the refrigerator for cooling?
A. Nitrogen
B. Methane
C. Hydrogen
D. Ammonia
Answer
Correct Answer: D. Ammonia
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. Ammonia
Explanation:
Ammonia (NH₃) is commonly used as a refrigerant in refrigeration systems, especially in industrial applications. It has excellent thermodynamic properties, making it effective at absorbing and releasing heat during the refrigeration cycle.
94. Which light is more important for photosynthesis?
A. Indigo
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Red
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Red
Explanation:
Red light is most important for photosynthesis. Plants primarily absorb light in the red and blue regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Red light (around 650–700 nm) is absorbed by chlorophyll, the pigment that plays a key role in the photosynthesis process, and helps in the production of glucose and oxygen.
95. Due to which of the following, a shaving blade when placed gently on water floats?
A. Surface Tension
B. Viscosity
C. Law of Flotation
D. Archimedes Principle
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Surface Tension
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Surface Tension
Explanation:
Surface tension is the property of a liquid’s surface that allows it to resist external force. In the case of a shaving blade placed gently on water, surface tension creates a force that holds the blade on the surface of the water, preventing it from sinking. The tension acts like a “skin” on the water, allowing the blade to float despite its density being greater than that of water.
96. Ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere, protects us from?
A. Infrared rays
B. Cosmic Rays
C. Ultraviolet rays
D. None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Ultraviolet rays
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. Ultraviolet rays
Explanation:
The ozone layer in the upper part of the Earth’s atmosphere absorbs and filters out a significant portion of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, particularly UV-B and UV-C rays, which can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other health issues. It acts as a protective shield for life on Earth.
97. How many bones are in an adult human body?
A. 260
B. 250
C. 200
D. 206
Answer
Correct Answer: D. 206
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
D. 206
Explanation:
An adult human body typically has 206 bones. This number can vary slightly due to anatomical variations, such as extra bones (e.g., extra ribs or bones in the hands and feet), but 206 is the standard number of bones for a typical adult.
The number of bones in infants is higher (around 270), but as they grow, some bones fuse together, leading to the 206 bones in adulthood.
Thus, the correct answer is 206.
98. Deficiency of Vitamin A creates ____ in the human body?
A. Rickets
B. Night Blindness
C. Scurvy
D. Beriberi
Answer
Correct Answer: B. Night Blindness
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
B. Night Blindness
Explanation:
Vitamin A deficiency primarily affects vision, leading to night blindness, a condition where the ability to see in low light or darkness is impaired.
Vitamin A is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a protein in the retina that allows the eyes to adjust to low-light conditions.
99. Why is the light of ordinary lamp hotter than the tube light?
A. It gives white light
B. It is due to ionization of gases
C. It is due to incandescence
D. It has more surface for distribution of energy
Answer
Correct Answer: C. It is due to incandescence
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
C. It is due to incandescence
Explanation:
Incandescence refers to the process where light is produced by heating a material (typically a filament in incandescent lamps) until it glows. In an ordinary lamp, the filament (often made of tungsten) heats up due to the passage of electricity, emitting both light and heat. This process produces a lot of heat, making the light from an incandescent lamp hotter than a tube light.
100. Clear nights are cooler than cloudy nights because of:
A. Radiation
B. Isolation
C. Conduction
D. Condensation
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Radiaiton
Detail about Mcqs
The correct answer is:
A. Radiation
Explanation:
On clear nights, the Earth’s surface radiates heat (infrared radiation) into space without any cloud cover to trap it. This leads to a rapid loss of heat, making the night cooler.
On cloudy nights, the clouds act like an insulating blanket, trapping some of the heat that would otherwise escape, preventing the temperature from dropping as much.
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- Test for the Post of MO/FMO BPS-17 (SPSC) held on 4-05-2023 Click Here
- Pakistan Post Karachi Postal Clerk Paper held on 9 February 2023 Click Here
- Post Office Postman(BS-7) Sukkur Paper held on 5-02-2023 Click Here
- National Heritage and Culture Division LDC Paper 27 Jan, 2023 Click Here
- National Heritage and Culture Division Assistant BS-15 25-01-2023 Click Here
- IBA 5 to 15 Scale Paper Solved Mcqs 19 Jan, 2023 Click Here
- IBA 5 to 15 Scale Paper Solved Mcqs 20 Jan, 2023 Click Here
- IBA 5 to 15 Scale Paper Solved MCQs, 18-Jan-2023 Click Here
- Postal Clerk Test Multan Region held on 15 Jan, 2023 Click Here
- Screening Test of Postal Clerk held on January 10, 2023 Click Here
- Ministry of Inter Provincial Coordination Assistant Test 08-01-2023 Click Here
- Department of Plant Protection Assistant Test 01-01-2023 Click Here
- Lab Assistant ETEA Paper held on 25 December 2022
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- Lab Assistant ETEA Paper held on 25 December 2022 Click Here
- ETEA Junior Clerk Solved Mcqs held on 24-12-2022 Click Here
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- Intelligence and Monitoring (ETEA) held on 18-12-2022 Click Here
- Screening Test For Recruitment of Staff Officer 17-12-2022 Click Here
- FBR Lower Division Clerk Mcqs 11-12-2022 Click Here
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